Confessor
Puritan Board Senior
(1) I was reading about dispensationalism tonight, and at this site I found the following quote:
How do dispensationalists hold to only one plan of salvation? I thought they were essentially forced by their system to speak of the Mosaic law as a way of justification.
(2) At the same site I saw this:
It also said this:
The author affirms that all Dispensationalists are pre-trib rapturists, offering pretty solid reasoning for this. But I remember hearing elsewhere that Dispensationalists can be mid- or post-trib. Is this true, and if so, how is it the case?
All modern dispensationalists would argue for one plan of salvation (salvation by faith), yet some, like Charles Ryrie have argued for a salvation by faith, yet meaning by such a statement a salvation by faith in God, without any content of Christ.
How do dispensationalists hold to only one plan of salvation? I thought they were essentially forced by their system to speak of the Mosaic law as a way of justification.
(2) At the same site I saw this:
The Church is only a parenthetical period until God can get back to plan one, the kingdom. Therefore before God returns to unfurl plan one again, plan two must be brought to a close by the rapture of the Church from the earth. The rapture will be followed by a tribulation period (thus the Church's rapture is a pre-tribulation rapture), which will bring judgment on a Christ-rejecting Gentile world and the purification of His people, the nation of Israel.
It also said this:
It would be true to say that all dispensationalists are premillennialists, and that all dispensationalists are pretribulation rapturists.
The author affirms that all Dispensationalists are pre-trib rapturists, offering pretty solid reasoning for this. But I remember hearing elsewhere that Dispensationalists can be mid- or post-trib. Is this true, and if so, how is it the case?