Scott Bushey
Puritanboard Commissioner
Given that the law was all oral, prior to Moses actually writing down the commands of God, how much credence do you give to the Talmud, Mishhnah and Gemara?
For example, in the passover meal, we see no positive command to use wine as the drink of choice for the meal. However, when we consult these other 'verbal' documents, it is said that there are 4 cups of blessings where wine is used.
Psachim 10:1
"On the eve of Passover [from] close to [the time of] the afternoon offering, no one must eat until nightfall. Even the poorest person in Israel must not eat [on the night of Passover] unless he reclines. And they must give him no fewer than four cups of wine, even [if he receives relief] from the charity plate."
It being that we reformed hold to scripture alone, do you consider any of these other documents to get to any of your conclusions?
Thanks in advance.
For example, in the passover meal, we see no positive command to use wine as the drink of choice for the meal. However, when we consult these other 'verbal' documents, it is said that there are 4 cups of blessings where wine is used.
Psachim 10:1
"On the eve of Passover [from] close to [the time of] the afternoon offering, no one must eat until nightfall. Even the poorest person in Israel must not eat [on the night of Passover] unless he reclines. And they must give him no fewer than four cups of wine, even [if he receives relief] from the charity plate."
It being that we reformed hold to scripture alone, do you consider any of these other documents to get to any of your conclusions?
Thanks in advance.