Many critics who say that EFS (Eternal Functional Subordination of the Son) is unbiblical are saying that for the Son to submit to the Father’s authority from all eternity requires an ontological submission and not merely an economical submission.
And to do so, there must be a distinction between the will of the Father and the will of the Son (otherwise submission would make no sense), such that they are erring against the Creeds which speak of only one will in God.
Therefore, when the incarnation happened, only then could Jesus submit.
BUT...
---Under this logic, how can we even have a Pactum Salutis?
---And also, why mark this point at the incarnation? The Son appeared to many in the OT, too, representing the Father. It would appear that the Pre-incarnate Son, as well, submitted to the Father.
---And also, it doesn't seem like any of the EFS folks like Ware or Grudem affirm that there is any ontological submission or subordination. But their opponents keep seeming to put words into their mouths and say, "you deny it, but you really have to believe in an ontological subordination, too, whether you admit it or not." Is this a bad way to argue?
---And again, was the Pactum Salutis an agreement to submit at some point in the future or did such a posture occur at the Pactum Salutis? For instance, God ordained to justify the Elect from all eternity and yet this actual justification occurs at a point in time and we reject the error of "eternal justification." Is the subordination of the Son similar?
And...must we throw out the concept of a Pactum Salutis entirely since it brings to mind motions of agreement between different wills? One OPC article refers to the Pactum as a "holy conspiracy of Grace." Is there is one will in God, how can there be a covenant among one will? (note: I affirm the Pactum Salutis, since this is the same as God swearing unto Himself).
Please let's stay focused on these particular narrower issues.
[note #2] I use the terms Pactum Salutis and Covenant of Redemption interchangeably. Can and should I do so?]
And to do so, there must be a distinction between the will of the Father and the will of the Son (otherwise submission would make no sense), such that they are erring against the Creeds which speak of only one will in God.
Therefore, when the incarnation happened, only then could Jesus submit.
BUT...
---Under this logic, how can we even have a Pactum Salutis?
---And also, why mark this point at the incarnation? The Son appeared to many in the OT, too, representing the Father. It would appear that the Pre-incarnate Son, as well, submitted to the Father.
---And also, it doesn't seem like any of the EFS folks like Ware or Grudem affirm that there is any ontological submission or subordination. But their opponents keep seeming to put words into their mouths and say, "you deny it, but you really have to believe in an ontological subordination, too, whether you admit it or not." Is this a bad way to argue?
---And again, was the Pactum Salutis an agreement to submit at some point in the future or did such a posture occur at the Pactum Salutis? For instance, God ordained to justify the Elect from all eternity and yet this actual justification occurs at a point in time and we reject the error of "eternal justification." Is the subordination of the Son similar?
And...must we throw out the concept of a Pactum Salutis entirely since it brings to mind motions of agreement between different wills? One OPC article refers to the Pactum as a "holy conspiracy of Grace." Is there is one will in God, how can there be a covenant among one will? (note: I affirm the Pactum Salutis, since this is the same as God swearing unto Himself).
Please let's stay focused on these particular narrower issues.
[note #2] I use the terms Pactum Salutis and Covenant of Redemption interchangeably. Can and should I do so?]
Last edited: