I am struggling through the issue of Jesus' presence at these two non-commanded feasts: (1) Hannukah (The feast of the Dedication), and (2) Purim: (1) First Hannukah: “Then came the Festival of Dedication at Jerusalem. It was winter, and Jesus was in the temple courts walking in Solomon’s Colonnade” (John 10:22–23). AT FIRST, it appears that John mentions the Feast of the Dedication in a manner that makes it appear that Jesus' presence was there for the feast. He was in Jerusalem. What is more, He went to the Temple on the appointed day. But it seems Jesus kept Himself to the court of the Gentiles and did not go in an worship with the Pharisees but used the occasion to engage them. Is this correct? John seems to mention this for a reason. Since the Feast of Dedication was initiated during the time of the Maccabees when there was no revelation given, by affirming that Jesus celebrated it, we would be giving affirmation to the Book of Maccabees, right? And also affirming that the supposed miracle of the oil actually happened, right? For Jesus wouldn't celebrate a holiday based on a fraud, would he? Or maybe the miracle of the oil did happen? BUT....Jesus did attend the Temple during the Feast of Dedication. Isn't this an observance of sorts, as much as He could? He attended the Temple on the expected day....but only kept to the Court of the Gentiles. (2) Purim: BUT..... now, how about Purim? It does not say God instituted Purim, but only the Jews... But in John 5 it appears that Jesus went up to Jerusalem for the purpose of the Purim feast. Did Jesus celebrate Purim? This unnamed feast appears to be Purim. My opinion right now is that it appears that though Hannukah and Purim were not directly commanded by God that Jesus still appeared and attended upon these festivities, though in a way that did not dishonor God. But...if these festivals were not honoring to God, wouldn't Jesus have stayed FAR away? Finally, how does this impact me living in another culture that celebrate foreign holidays?