The Psalms about David or Christ?

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steven-nemes

Puritan Board Sophomore
I read somewhere online that a person 'x' believes that the Psalms are not specifically about David's experiences, but rather, about Christ. And supports his view by pointing to the fact that the apostles regularly applied direct quotations from the Psalms to what Jesus was doing; "zeal for your house will consume me", for example.

What are your views?
 
Jesus Christ is all over the Old Testament, including the Psalms, read Psalm 1.
 
Sure, but the question is: is Psalm 1 speaking specifically of Jesus, or is it giving prudential advice and words to live by?
 
I think the Psalms in question relate to David and Christ. First and foremost the Psalms were written for a specific historical situation that the author was experiencing. However David is a type of Christ and in the fullness of time we see the Psalm's ultimate fulfillment in Christ, Davids greater son.

As Jesus explained to those on the road to Emmaus, Christ is in all the scriptures-wisdom, historical and prophetical writings. But we miss out on a lot if we ignore the historical context of the Psalm or indeed any other OT scripture.

The application of OT passages by the apostles to Christ simply shows the truth of the maxim "Christ is in the Old concealed and in the New revealed."
 
Psalm 1 is speaking much of Christ. It also is exhorting us toward right behavior.

This is similar to Revelation 3 in that it refers to specific churches that existed at that time (e.g. Smyrna, Laodocia, Philadelphia, etc.) and, at the same time, types of churches that exist throughout the ages, including today.
 
What happens between the resurrection and the ascension is a 40 day period of transition, an unstable period, redemptive historically (hence John 20:17). It is an important period, though. It is a period of teaching. (Luk 24:43-47). And the content of that instruction is the kingdom (v. 44 – what he taught while he was with them). Explicit confirmation of this is found in Acts 1:3. What Jesus teaches them is that, if they are to understand their Bibles (our OT) correctly, they’ll have to see in it (“it is written”, v. 46) three things: Death, resurrection and church.

All that is to say that the answer to your question is ... yes. Yes it's about David, but its ultimate significance is found in Christ. Jesus is very clear that the entire Old Testament is about Jesus' death and resurrection, and the consequent proclamation of the gospel to the gentiles.

This is a brief answer to a complex question. I've given you the short answer. If you'd like exegetical defense, I could provide that.
 
I think many of the Psalms are about Christ specifically. But I think David's experiences also fuel many of them. That doesn't help at all, does it : )
 
I would recommend reading James Adams' War Psalms of the Prince of Peace. It deals primarily with the imprecatory psalms, but it demonstrates how all the psalms speak of Christ.
 
Why do the certain psalms have to refer to one or the other, why can't they refer to both? Why can't the Holy Spirit inspire David to record his experiences in such a way that they prophecy Christ. After all we see prophecys like 1 sam 2:10 that find one fullfillment in david, but there ultimate and fullfullment in Christ Jesus.
 
One of the interpretative keys to the Psalms is expressed on the day of Pentecost by Peter, Acts 2:30, 31. David's experiences were not private, but public and representative by virtue of the Seed promised to him. Hence the sufferings and glories depicted in the Psalms are true of David, but only as he was a type of Christ; they ultimately speak of the sufferings and glories of the Messiah.
 
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