Jash Comstock
Puritan Board Freshman
I have often been confused by the "I thirst" cry of Christ on the cross. Recently I stumbled across this little tidbit in my study, and was wondering if I am on the right track. In Ezekiel
23:32-34 God rebukes his covenant people through the prophet, and threatens them with His cup of wrath. Then, in Isaiah 51:22 God gives a glorious promise; "Behold, I have taken from your hand the cup of staggering; the bowl of my wrath you shall drink it no more." Could the "I thirst" of Christ on the cross be a fulfillment of this promise, and a transfer of Ezekiel's threat? Was he thirsting for the wrath of God, because of the depth of his love for us? Am I on the right track?
23:32-34 God rebukes his covenant people through the prophet, and threatens them with His cup of wrath. Then, in Isaiah 51:22 God gives a glorious promise; "Behold, I have taken from your hand the cup of staggering; the bowl of my wrath you shall drink it no more." Could the "I thirst" of Christ on the cross be a fulfillment of this promise, and a transfer of Ezekiel's threat? Was he thirsting for the wrath of God, because of the depth of his love for us? Am I on the right track?