The Unity of Christ in Eternity

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dissidentcynic

Puritan Board Freshman
We just finished the section on the unity of Christ's human nature and His deity in my systematic theology course. I was left with some questions that my professor could not help me with. My question is, in eternity, will Christ still have two natures, will he still be the God-Man, fully deity, fully man. This question raises many other doctrinal implications as well. Such as, how could a member of the trinity existing in eternity, come to earth, take on human flesh, return to infinity, and reunite with the trinity with human flesh on him? Does this not introduce change into the Logos or the Word or the trinity itself?
 

au5t1n

Puritan Board Post-Graduate
He will be the God-man forever, yes. I'm not clear on what you mean by "reunited with the trinity" - Does the Trinity need to be in one location to be united?
 

dissidentcynic

Puritan Board Freshman
Real quick, just to clarify, I am not denying the deity or humanity of Christ, I believe he was fully God and fully man while on Earth. I am just trying to understand the Word's (The Son) state in Eternity. Will he be fully human and fully God in eternity, or just fully God? Since he was united here on the Earth with flesh, will he still be united in eternity with flesh?

I read Hebrews 5:5-6, I see Christ as our High Priest, but do not see anything about his union with human nature. Looking for a historical, philosophical, or Biblical explanation of what occurs to the Christ, or if this is left up to speculation in the scriptures. If someone can cite a book, I may be able to get it in my school's library.

Thanks.
 
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au5t1n

Puritan Board Post-Graduate
Real quick, just to clarify, I am not denying the deity or humanity of Christ, I believe he was fully God and fully man while on Earth. I am just trying to understand the Word's (The Son) state in Eternity. Will he be fully human and fully God in eternity, or just fully God? Since he was united here on the Earth with flesh, will he still be united in eternity with flesh?

I read Hebrews 5:5-6, I see Christ as our High Priest, but do not see anything about his union with human nature. Looking for a historical, philosophical, or Biblical explanation of what occurs to the Christ, or if this is left up to speculation in the scriptures. If someone can cite a book, I may be able to get it in my school's library.

Thanks.

We are told that Christ is the firstborn of many brothers in his resurrection from the dead with his glorified body; and since we are going to have our physical bodies forever (albeit glorified), it follows that Christ's body remains the same as well. He is our human high priest forever, as I believe [KJV]Heb. 5:5-6[/KJV] attest.
 

dissidentcynic

Puritan Board Freshman
Let me see if I understand you here,
Christ ascended with his resurrected body, and since we will also have physical bodies forever, we should derive that God the Son should have the same physical body as well?
 

au5t1n

Puritan Board Post-Graduate
Let me see if I understand you here,
Christ ascended with his resurrected body, and since we will also have physical bodies forever, we should derive that God the Son should have the same physical body as well?

Yes, I believe his resurrection is a type of our own (cf. [KJV]Col. 1:18[/KJV]).

Added: Mind you, Christ's resurrected body has some new characteristics. He could appear unrecognizable to the men on the road to Emmaus and he could disappear from the midst of them. However, he also ate fish and let Thomas touch his wounds. So his body is the same one as before, but glorified. I believe this is forever. Otherwise, what would happen to his body? I can't make sense of any other view.
 

Amazing Grace

Puritan Board Junior
We just finished the section on the unity of Christ's human nature and His deity in my systematic theology course. I was left with some questions that my professor could not help me with. My question is, in eternity, will Christ still have two natures, will he still be the God-Man, fully deity, fully man. This question raises many other doctrinal implications as well. Such as, how could a member of the trinity existing in eternity, come to earth, take on human flesh, return to infinity, and reunite with the trinity with human flesh on him? Does this not introduce change into the Logos or the Word or the trinity itself?

He is forever the God-Man. Col 2:9 is an ongoing eternal principal as well as John 2:7.

1 John 4:1-4
Beloved, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits to see whether they are from God, because many false prophets have gone out into the world. 2By this you know the Spirit of God: every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God; 3and every spirit that does not confess Jesus is not from God; this is the spirit of the antichrist, of which you have heard that it is coming, and now it is already in the world.

Has come- this is in the perfect tense which means a past action with continuing results in the present.


1 John 4:2
That Jesus Christ is come in the flesh

Same verb syntax.

1 Timothy 2:5

"For there is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus" (1 Tim. 2:5, NASB)

The term used here for both "men" and "man" is ἄνθρωπος, with "men" of course being the genitive plural masculine form of the noun (ἀνθρώπων). There is no word separating "man" from "men" (καὶ ἀνθρώπων ἄνθρωπος). The "man" Christ Jesus is the mediator for "men" of flesh and bones. There's no reason to say that the "man" Christ Jesus, concerning His form in heaven, is any different from the "men" He is the mediator for.


Colossians 2:9-10

"For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form, and in Him you have been made complete, and He is the head over all rule and authority" (Col. 2:9-10), NASB)

The strongest argument from this text for the bodily form Christ Jesus in heaven is the form of the κατοικέω (dwells) used here. κατοικεῖ is the present active indicative form of κατοικέω, meaning this is a present, ongoing "dwelling" or "housing". The one whom Deity is presently dwelling/housing in is the "head over all rule and authority" and is identified as Christ Jesus (Col. 2:8). This "head over all things" is identified with Christ post His ascension.

Notice what 2 John 7 says:


2 John 1:7 For many deceivers have gone out into the world, those who do not acknowledge Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh. This is the deceiver and the antichrist.

The word "coming" is a present participle, which denotes a continuous action (note that this is said well after the ascension).'“Jesus Christ coming in the flesh.” Present middle participle of erchomai treating the Incarnation as a continuing fact which the Docetic Gnostics flatly denied.'

Marvin Vincent says "The verb is in the present participle, coming, which describes the manhood of Christ as still being manifested."


Read that verse and see what John is saying about those who deny the very fact of Jesus' continued incarnation (after the ascension). They are deceivers and antichrist.

Colossians 2:9 makes the statement of Jesus having a body in which deity dwells. This is spoken in the present tense after the ascension, telling us that after the ascension, Jesus has a body.

-----Added 11/13/2009 at 04:53:37 EST-----

Acts 17;31

31 because He has appointed a day on which He will judge the world in righteousness by the Man whom He has ordained. He has given assurance of this to all by raising Him from the dead.”
 

py3ak

Unshaven and anonymous
Staff member
We just finished the section on the unity of Christ's human nature and His deity in my systematic theology course. I was left with some questions that my professor could not help me with. My question is, in eternity, will Christ still have two natures, will he still be the God-Man, fully deity, fully man. This question raises many other doctrinal implications as well. Such as, how could a member of the trinity existing in eternity, come to earth, take on human flesh, return to infinity, and reunite with the trinity with human flesh on him? Does this not introduce change into the Logos or the Word or the trinity itself?

Yes, Christ will forever be the God-man. I think Philippians 2:5-11 makes this point, because it is at the name of Jesus (the name given Him by the angel before His birth but after His conception) that every knee shall bow and every tongue confess that He is Lord to the glory of God the Father. In glory, He has not laid aside the humanity which He assumed. The Westminster Shorter Catechism teaches that the Son never lays aside His human nature in Question 21:
Who is the redeemer of God's elect?
The only Redeemer of God's elect is the Lord Jesus Christ, who, being the eternal Son of God, became man, and so was, and continueth to be, God and man in two distinct natures, and one person, forever.​
(Emphasis added)

There are many other argument to prove the same point. You can read John Brown on Christ's hypostatic union at the following link:
A compendious view of natural and revealed religion ..

(Pp.297-315; point 3 on p.298, which spills over onto the next page, specifically addresses the permanence of the union, but the whole section will do your soul good.)

This does not introduce change into the divine nature; the union is personal, and the natures are each distinct and entire.
 

MW

Puritanboard Amanuensis
Some helpful guidance from the past. Please note the emphasis on the eternal priesthood of Christ.

Thomas Vincent:

Q. 12. Will this union of the divine and human natures in Christ ever be dissolved?

A. No; for he was, and continueth to be, God and man in two distinct natures, and one person for ever. "Because he continueth for ever, he hath an unchangeable priesthood." — Heb. 7:24.

James Fisher:

Q. 31. Will ever the union between the two natures be dissolved?

A. By no means: for he is, and will continue to be our Kinsman, Priest, and Representative, in both natures for ever, Heb. 7:24, 25.
 
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