a mere housewife
Not your cup of tea
My question was raised on a baptism thread and I had posted it there, but while boiling the polenta I realized that it is not actually a question about baptism but about how to understand what the Westminster Confession means when it states who is to receive the sacrament.
The Westminster Confession seems to define 'belief' in the parents in the same sense as a 'profession of faith in and obedience unto Christ' by referring to 'believing parents' in context of this kind of profession in Chapter 28.4:
"Not only those that do actually profess faith and obedience unto Christ, but also the infants of one, or both, believing parents, are to be baptised."
The answer to question q.166 of the larger catechism also seems to support this (emphasis mine): 'Baptism is not to be administered to any that are out of the visible church, and so strangers from the covenant of promise, till they profess their faith in Christ, and obedience to him, but infants descending from parents, either both, or but one of them, professing faith in Christ, and obedience to him, are in that respect within the covenant, and to be baptised.'
This seems to militate against baptizing an unbelieving wife since descent seems to be the relation that would constitute an infant being in the covenant --as against baptising unbelieving servants and so on. It would also militate against baptising an infant of a baptised parent who had never made a profession of faith in Christ. Yet this contradicts views expressed here by people who have far more familiarity with the Westminster Confession than I do. Am I reading this incorrectly?
The Westminster Confession seems to define 'belief' in the parents in the same sense as a 'profession of faith in and obedience unto Christ' by referring to 'believing parents' in context of this kind of profession in Chapter 28.4:
"Not only those that do actually profess faith and obedience unto Christ, but also the infants of one, or both, believing parents, are to be baptised."
The answer to question q.166 of the larger catechism also seems to support this (emphasis mine): 'Baptism is not to be administered to any that are out of the visible church, and so strangers from the covenant of promise, till they profess their faith in Christ, and obedience to him, but infants descending from parents, either both, or but one of them, professing faith in Christ, and obedience to him, are in that respect within the covenant, and to be baptised.'
This seems to militate against baptizing an unbelieving wife since descent seems to be the relation that would constitute an infant being in the covenant --as against baptising unbelieving servants and so on. It would also militate against baptising an infant of a baptised parent who had never made a profession of faith in Christ. Yet this contradicts views expressed here by people who have far more familiarity with the Westminster Confession than I do. Am I reading this incorrectly?
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