2 Peter 1:3 KJV:
Some commentators, like Calvin, say that it can be translated as either 'by glory and virtue' or 'to glory and virtue.' Others say, as Bauckham for example, "The dative can hardly give the sense "called to"...but should be taken as instrumental."
Does anyone (on PB) have any insight into why the KJV translators chose 'to' instead of 'by'?
According as his divine power hath given unto us all things that pertain unto life and godliness, through the knowledge of him that hath called us to glory and virtue:
Some commentators, like Calvin, say that it can be translated as either 'by glory and virtue' or 'to glory and virtue.' Others say, as Bauckham for example, "The dative can hardly give the sense "called to"...but should be taken as instrumental."
Does anyone (on PB) have any insight into why the KJV translators chose 'to' instead of 'by'?