[quote:b9b4228fec][i:b9b4228fec]Originally posted by grace2U[/i:b9b4228fec]
Hey, Fred!
I'm interested to know whether you thought my last post was a legitimate exposition of 1John 2:2. It isn't original to me, but I'd appreciate your opinion before I use it in a sermon sometime.
Blessings,
Steve [/quote:b9b4228fec]
Steve,
I think that your interpretation is possible, although I would prefer to take 1 John 2:2 in the same sense that I take John 3:16. It is expressing the same thought here - that Christ died for all who would believe in him, with the understanding (by analogy of faith) that only those who are elect will believe, over and against those that would limit the Messiah to the Jews.
Matthew Poole describes it thus:
[quote:b9b4228fec]
And not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world; nor is his undertaking herein limited to any select persons among believers, but he must be understood to be an Advocate for all, for whom he is effectually a Propitiation, i.e. for all that truly believe in him, (#Ro 3:25), all the world over.
[/quote:b9b4228fec]
And Matthew Henry:
[quote:b9b4228fec]
4. By the extent of his plea, the latitude of his propitiation. It is not confined to one nation; and not particularly to the ancient Israel of God: He is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only (not only for the sins of us Jews, us that are Abraham's seed according to the flesh), but also for those of the whole world (#1Jo 2:2); not only for the past, or us present believers, but for the sins of all who shall hereafter believe on him or come to God through him. The extent and intent of the Mediator's death reach to all tribes, nations, and countries. As he is the only, so he is the universal atonement and propitiation for all that are saved and brought home to God, and to his favour and forgiveness
[/quote:b9b4228fec]
And Gill:
[quote:b9b4228fec]
but also for [the sins] of the whole world; the Syriac version renders it, "not for us only, but also for the whole world"; that is, not for the Jews only, for John was a Jew, and so were those he wrote unto, but for the Gentiles also. Nothing is more common in Jewish writings than to call the Gentiles amle, "the world"; and Mlweh lk, "the whole world"; and Mlweh twmwa, "the nations of the world" {l}; see Gill on "John 12:19"; and the word "world" is so used in Scripture; see #Joh 3:16 4:42 Ro 11:12,15; and stands opposed to a notion the Jews have of the Gentiles, that hrpk Nhl Nya, "there is no propitiation for them" {m}: and it is easy to observe, that when this phrase is not used of the Gentiles, it is to be understood in a limited and restrained sense[/quote:b9b4228fec]
The Geneva notes:
[quote:b9b4228fec]For men of all sorts, of all ages, and all places, so that this benefit being not to the Jews only, of whom he speaks as appears in #1Jo 2:7 but also to other nations[/quote:b9b4228fec]
And finally Calvin:
[quote:b9b4228fec]
Here a question may be raised, how have the sins of the whole world been expiated? I pass by the dotages of the fanatics, who under this pretense extend salvation to all the reprobate, and therefore to Satan himself. Such a monstrous thing deserves no refutation. They who seek to avoid this absurdity, have said that Christ 1 suffered sufficiently for the whole world, but efficiently only for the elect. This solution has commonly prevailed in the schools. Though then I allow that what has been said is true, yet I deny that it is suitable to this passage; for the design of John was no other than to make this benefit common to the whole Church. Then under the word all or whole, he does not include the reprobate, but designates those who should believe as well as those who were then scattered through various parts of the world. For then is really made evident, as it is meet, the grace of Christ, when it is declared to be the only true salvation of the world
[/quote:b9b4228fec]
So I would make your point, but use it as "coloring" for the verse rather than THE interpretation.
Hey, Fred!
I'm interested to know whether you thought my last post was a legitimate exposition of 1John 2:2. It isn't original to me, but I'd appreciate your opinion before I use it in a sermon sometime.
Blessings,
Steve [/quote:b9b4228fec]
Steve,
I think that your interpretation is possible, although I would prefer to take 1 John 2:2 in the same sense that I take John 3:16. It is expressing the same thought here - that Christ died for all who would believe in him, with the understanding (by analogy of faith) that only those who are elect will believe, over and against those that would limit the Messiah to the Jews.
Matthew Poole describes it thus:
[quote:b9b4228fec]
And not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world; nor is his undertaking herein limited to any select persons among believers, but he must be understood to be an Advocate for all, for whom he is effectually a Propitiation, i.e. for all that truly believe in him, (#Ro 3:25), all the world over.
[/quote:b9b4228fec]
And Matthew Henry:
[quote:b9b4228fec]
4. By the extent of his plea, the latitude of his propitiation. It is not confined to one nation; and not particularly to the ancient Israel of God: He is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only (not only for the sins of us Jews, us that are Abraham's seed according to the flesh), but also for those of the whole world (#1Jo 2:2); not only for the past, or us present believers, but for the sins of all who shall hereafter believe on him or come to God through him. The extent and intent of the Mediator's death reach to all tribes, nations, and countries. As he is the only, so he is the universal atonement and propitiation for all that are saved and brought home to God, and to his favour and forgiveness
[/quote:b9b4228fec]
And Gill:
[quote:b9b4228fec]
but also for [the sins] of the whole world; the Syriac version renders it, "not for us only, but also for the whole world"; that is, not for the Jews only, for John was a Jew, and so were those he wrote unto, but for the Gentiles also. Nothing is more common in Jewish writings than to call the Gentiles amle, "the world"; and Mlweh lk, "the whole world"; and Mlweh twmwa, "the nations of the world" {l}; see Gill on "John 12:19"; and the word "world" is so used in Scripture; see #Joh 3:16 4:42 Ro 11:12,15; and stands opposed to a notion the Jews have of the Gentiles, that hrpk Nhl Nya, "there is no propitiation for them" {m}: and it is easy to observe, that when this phrase is not used of the Gentiles, it is to be understood in a limited and restrained sense[/quote:b9b4228fec]
The Geneva notes:
[quote:b9b4228fec]For men of all sorts, of all ages, and all places, so that this benefit being not to the Jews only, of whom he speaks as appears in #1Jo 2:7 but also to other nations[/quote:b9b4228fec]
And finally Calvin:
[quote:b9b4228fec]
Here a question may be raised, how have the sins of the whole world been expiated? I pass by the dotages of the fanatics, who under this pretense extend salvation to all the reprobate, and therefore to Satan himself. Such a monstrous thing deserves no refutation. They who seek to avoid this absurdity, have said that Christ 1 suffered sufficiently for the whole world, but efficiently only for the elect. This solution has commonly prevailed in the schools. Though then I allow that what has been said is true, yet I deny that it is suitable to this passage; for the design of John was no other than to make this benefit common to the whole Church. Then under the word all or whole, he does not include the reprobate, but designates those who should believe as well as those who were then scattered through various parts of the world. For then is really made evident, as it is meet, the grace of Christ, when it is declared to be the only true salvation of the world
[/quote:b9b4228fec]
So I would make your point, but use it as "coloring" for the verse rather than THE interpretation.
