ascottishsamurai
DJ JapaScot
I'm not sure that this is in the right board or not, so please feel free to move it if you wish, but I've been working through an issue lately that I have yet to decipher very well, so I would like to present it here for additional thought and opinions.
Please look at the following passage of Scripture detailing the account of Rahab the prostitute and her protection of the spies from Israel.
Joshua 2:1-7
"1 Then Joshua son of Nun secretly sent two spies from Shittim. "Go, look over the land," he said, "especially Jericho." So they went and entered the house of a prostitute named Rahab and stayed there. 2 The king of Jericho was told, "Look! Some of the Israelites have come here tonight to spy out the land." 3 So the king of Jericho sent this message to Rahab: "Bring out the men who came to you and entered your house, because they have come to spy out the whole land."
4 But the woman had taken the two men and hidden them. She said, "Yes, the men came to me, but I did not know where they had come from. 5 At dusk, when it was time to close the city gate, the men left. I don't know which way they went. Go after them quickly. You may catch up with them." 6 (But she had taken them up to the roof and hidden them under the stalks of flax she had laid out on the roof.) 7 So the men set out in pursuit of the spies on the road that leads to the fords of the Jordan, and as soon as the pursuers had gone out, the gate was shut."
Now, in order to understand my quandary, please examine the following passage from James.
James 2:25
"25 In the same way, was not even Rahab the prostitute considered righteous for what she did when she gave lodging to the spies and sent them off in a different direction?"
Now, these two passages seem to suggest that Rahab was considered righteous for lying, an act which Scripture clearly prohibits. But why? Is it ever considered "justified" under extreme circumstances to bear false witness? And how do you define "extreme circumstances"? Are they life or death situations? Times of war? Or was that simply an isolated situation in a time when God's presence and direction were far more clearly seen, being that he spoke verbally to His people?
...or perhaps most-likely, am I completely off the mark by misinterpreting the passages?
Please look at the following passage of Scripture detailing the account of Rahab the prostitute and her protection of the spies from Israel.
Joshua 2:1-7
"1 Then Joshua son of Nun secretly sent two spies from Shittim. "Go, look over the land," he said, "especially Jericho." So they went and entered the house of a prostitute named Rahab and stayed there. 2 The king of Jericho was told, "Look! Some of the Israelites have come here tonight to spy out the land." 3 So the king of Jericho sent this message to Rahab: "Bring out the men who came to you and entered your house, because they have come to spy out the whole land."
4 But the woman had taken the two men and hidden them. She said, "Yes, the men came to me, but I did not know where they had come from. 5 At dusk, when it was time to close the city gate, the men left. I don't know which way they went. Go after them quickly. You may catch up with them." 6 (But she had taken them up to the roof and hidden them under the stalks of flax she had laid out on the roof.) 7 So the men set out in pursuit of the spies on the road that leads to the fords of the Jordan, and as soon as the pursuers had gone out, the gate was shut."
Now, in order to understand my quandary, please examine the following passage from James.
James 2:25
"25 In the same way, was not even Rahab the prostitute considered righteous for what she did when she gave lodging to the spies and sent them off in a different direction?"
Now, these two passages seem to suggest that Rahab was considered righteous for lying, an act which Scripture clearly prohibits. But why? Is it ever considered "justified" under extreme circumstances to bear false witness? And how do you define "extreme circumstances"? Are they life or death situations? Times of war? Or was that simply an isolated situation in a time when God's presence and direction were far more clearly seen, being that he spoke verbally to His people?
...or perhaps most-likely, am I completely off the mark by misinterpreting the passages?