Unsure if this is the correct forum location to post this in.
In Turretin's "Institutes of Elenctic Theology", Vol. 2, 12th topic, fifth question about the unity of the covenant of grace, he says that the first reason for answering in the affirmative is "from the Scriptures". The other reasons include "From the identity of the covenant of grace" and "From the identity of the Mediator" etc.. Many of these other reasons are full of references to Scripture.
My question is: What does Turretin mean by "from the Scriptures" and how is this distinguished from the other reasons he gives, which seem to be (1) Scriptural and (2) make explicit reference to the Scriptures?
In Turretin's "Institutes of Elenctic Theology", Vol. 2, 12th topic, fifth question about the unity of the covenant of grace, he says that the first reason for answering in the affirmative is "from the Scriptures". The other reasons include "From the identity of the covenant of grace" and "From the identity of the Mediator" etc.. Many of these other reasons are full of references to Scripture.
My question is: What does Turretin mean by "from the Scriptures" and how is this distinguished from the other reasons he gives, which seem to be (1) Scriptural and (2) make explicit reference to the Scriptures?