Darryl Le Roux
Puritan Board Freshman
Hi all.
So I have been wrestling with the issue of the above, the two wills of God.
I have heard Sproul and the like mention that Satan and Adam were the only ones that had libertarian free will. Therefore, their choice to sin, was not by the Lord's hand in the sense of ordination. It was solely on the two as their responsibility. Now, this can go down a rabbit whole in terms of responsibility of an individual, but this is not my issue at the moment.
The issue that I am trying to grapple with is this, how does the verse in say Genesis 2:17 describe libertarian free will, and not merely the issue of God's two wills? How does this apply to Adam, and not to us? I am fully aware that we are unable to choose God in our state as fallen individuals, however, how does one marry the "choice" that Adam and Satan made with being solely on their accord, and not predestined and ordained from the Lord for them to choose otherwise? Should the latter be true, would this not mean that sin entered into the world by the Lord's hand?
I just cannot apply Deut. 29:29 to this. If this is the case, then the two wills of God seem to be a fallacy. To my knowledge of course.
So I have been wrestling with the issue of the above, the two wills of God.
I have heard Sproul and the like mention that Satan and Adam were the only ones that had libertarian free will. Therefore, their choice to sin, was not by the Lord's hand in the sense of ordination. It was solely on the two as their responsibility. Now, this can go down a rabbit whole in terms of responsibility of an individual, but this is not my issue at the moment.
The issue that I am trying to grapple with is this, how does the verse in say Genesis 2:17 describe libertarian free will, and not merely the issue of God's two wills? How does this apply to Adam, and not to us? I am fully aware that we are unable to choose God in our state as fallen individuals, however, how does one marry the "choice" that Adam and Satan made with being solely on their accord, and not predestined and ordained from the Lord for them to choose otherwise? Should the latter be true, would this not mean that sin entered into the world by the Lord's hand?
I just cannot apply Deut. 29:29 to this. If this is the case, then the two wills of God seem to be a fallacy. To my knowledge of course.