Still studying all this. Is this whole debate not more fundamentally based on what one perceives to be “better” manuscripts instead what method is applied? In other words, do not those who are in the TR-Only group have to deal with text variants with the Byzantine Copies? Picking some within that group as more accurate than others. As I said i am still studying this, but the TR-Onylist think those in the CT camp believe the Word is corrupted....but are not the TR-Onlysist the ones saying that ALL other manuscripts (specifically) Alexandrian are corrupt outside the TR? Could this line of thinking not then imply that the manuscripts used in CT are more in line with the idea expressed in the Westminster Standards? Just looking for help. Today I am a CT guy mainly because I like the fact that it pulls from a wider range of manuscripts, which for me says that God has kept his word pure, not ONLY in all ages, but also in a wider range of places.