Reformingstudent
Puritan Board Junior
This might sound like a dumb question as I know that many believe that Adam was redeemed but none the less I have my own doubts and would like to share my idea and maybe get someone else´s out put on it.
If Christ is the federal Head of all those whom He came to redeemed out of Adams race and Adam represents those who are still fallen and not saved ( 1Co 15:22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.) Does it seem odd that the first man who caused sin and evil to come into the world and plunge his race into spiritual ruin be placed in Christ himself while the rest of his family (those not elect that is) are doomed to suffer. How can the first Adam be placed into the second Adam (Christ) if he was in fact the figure of Him (second Adam, Christ) who was to come? See Romans 5:14.
Was just thinking about this earlier today and wanted to see if any else may have an idea. Can it be proved from the bible that Adam was saved in the end or that he possessed saving faith? Did Adam enjoy fellowship once more with His creator as he did in the beginning?
Thanks.
If Christ is the federal Head of all those whom He came to redeemed out of Adams race and Adam represents those who are still fallen and not saved ( 1Co 15:22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.) Does it seem odd that the first man who caused sin and evil to come into the world and plunge his race into spiritual ruin be placed in Christ himself while the rest of his family (those not elect that is) are doomed to suffer. How can the first Adam be placed into the second Adam (Christ) if he was in fact the figure of Him (second Adam, Christ) who was to come? See Romans 5:14.
Was just thinking about this earlier today and wanted to see if any else may have an idea. Can it be proved from the bible that Adam was saved in the end or that he possessed saving faith? Did Adam enjoy fellowship once more with His creator as he did in the beginning?
Thanks.