carlosstjohn
Puritan Board Freshman
I promise I'm not a heretic. Haha.
Here are my thoughts as I was driving earlier today.
1. God creates everything in the universe in perfect order. He creates Eden, Adam, and then subsequently Eve. They were perfect. Perfect in communion with God and there was no sin.
2. In the end of time, God will make all things new and recreate the perfect world once again. Regardless of what eschatological view you hold to, we can all agree that after all is said and done, we will be with God forever in New Jerusalem and in the New Earth forever and ever with new glorified bodies. We will have bodies with new capacities to see and enjoy God more than we could ever imagine in our lives now. And we will have bodies and minds and hearts where sin never even crosses our mind, in the sense of being tempted.
So my question is this: If in the end, God makes all things new and perfect again and within that perfection is the incapability of sin for His elect, what does that mean for when God created everything the first time? Perfection is perfect. It cannot be improved upon for it could be improved on it would prove to not actually have been perfect. So if in the new age, one quality of our perfection is that we cannot sin, Eden was obviously missing that since Adam and Eve had the capability to sin.
I realize this closely aligns with the idea that Christ on earth was perfect but had the ability to sin since he was a man. So if you want to touch on that too, go ahead.
But my main question is, if in New Jerusalem, our bodies will be made perfect and we will live in a perfect world, and that perfect world is no longer and can no longer be stained by sin, what does that mean for Eden? was it not perfect? (As far as I have been taught, the creation was perfect prior to the fall, so I am not doubting this doctrine but rather trying to find an answer to this seeming contradiction or problem in logical consistency)
Thanks so much!
Here are my thoughts as I was driving earlier today.
1. God creates everything in the universe in perfect order. He creates Eden, Adam, and then subsequently Eve. They were perfect. Perfect in communion with God and there was no sin.
2. In the end of time, God will make all things new and recreate the perfect world once again. Regardless of what eschatological view you hold to, we can all agree that after all is said and done, we will be with God forever in New Jerusalem and in the New Earth forever and ever with new glorified bodies. We will have bodies with new capacities to see and enjoy God more than we could ever imagine in our lives now. And we will have bodies and minds and hearts where sin never even crosses our mind, in the sense of being tempted.
So my question is this: If in the end, God makes all things new and perfect again and within that perfection is the incapability of sin for His elect, what does that mean for when God created everything the first time? Perfection is perfect. It cannot be improved upon for it could be improved on it would prove to not actually have been perfect. So if in the new age, one quality of our perfection is that we cannot sin, Eden was obviously missing that since Adam and Eve had the capability to sin.
I realize this closely aligns with the idea that Christ on earth was perfect but had the ability to sin since he was a man. So if you want to touch on that too, go ahead.
But my main question is, if in New Jerusalem, our bodies will be made perfect and we will live in a perfect world, and that perfect world is no longer and can no longer be stained by sin, what does that mean for Eden? was it not perfect? (As far as I have been taught, the creation was perfect prior to the fall, so I am not doubting this doctrine but rather trying to find an answer to this seeming contradiction or problem in logical consistency)
Thanks so much!