ServantofGod
Puritan Board Junior
In my hermenuetics class last year, we discussed whether or not it were possible for Jesus, as the God-man, to have sinned. If it was, how can we reconcile this with Jesus' Divine Nature, if it was not, how were His temptations valid, in the sense that, can Someone who cannot be swayed by temptations, One who cannot(impossible to) sin, actually be tempted to sin. Our Biblical tension revolved around Christ's Divine nature and these two passages:
Hebrews 4:15- For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin.
Hebrews 2:17,18- Therefore he had to be made like his brothers in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people. For because he himself has suffered when tempted, he is able to help those who are being tempted.
What is temptation then?
Hebrews 4:15- For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin.
Hebrews 2:17,18- Therefore he had to be made like his brothers in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people. For because he himself has suffered when tempted, he is able to help those who are being tempted.
What is temptation then?