Morning all - I'm meeting with a RC who asked me this question, which I'm not sure how to address.
If 2 Tim 3.14-17 teaches the sufficiency of Scripture, was it sufficient for Timothy?
I think what he's getting at is that the NT wasn't written yet, so it's really referring to the OT. So if scripture is sufficient, why were we getting new revelation?
Is there already a thread on this?
Thanks
Andy
If 2 Tim 3.14-17 teaches the sufficiency of Scripture, was it sufficient for Timothy?
I think what he's getting at is that the NT wasn't written yet, so it's really referring to the OT. So if scripture is sufficient, why were we getting new revelation?
Is there already a thread on this?
Thanks
Andy