When the prophets spoke on behalf of God, were they [i:0035ae72e4]inerrant[/i:0035ae72e4]? If they weren't then God's word is not pure and he lied. If they said such and such happend on such a date, it must have actually happened, or else the prophet and God are wrong.
The logical conclusion of infallibility is inerrancy, right? All prophets were inspired, therefore anything they say is qualification for Scripture. Atleast that was the basic criteria for the early church's inclusion of books in the canon. (Keeping in mind of course that not all who wrote in the Bible were prophets but were still inspired.)
Were the prophets inerrant in what they spoke for God? If so, this makes the 'Church doctrine' of Biblical inspiration much easier.
Rembrandt
[Edited on 5-28-2004 by rembrandt]
The logical conclusion of infallibility is inerrancy, right? All prophets were inspired, therefore anything they say is qualification for Scripture. Atleast that was the basic criteria for the early church's inclusion of books in the canon. (Keeping in mind of course that not all who wrote in the Bible were prophets but were still inspired.)
Were the prophets inerrant in what they spoke for God? If so, this makes the 'Church doctrine' of Biblical inspiration much easier.
Rembrandt
[Edited on 5-28-2004 by rembrandt]