Are there any articles, from a Confessional perspective, that deal head on with the position of Lee Irons:
i.e. the position that the Sabbath is binding only on those who are in the covenant community and has no binding authority over those outside the covenant community.
Lee Irons' article may be found here: http://www.upper-register.com/mosaic_law/sabbath_eschatological_sign.html
Joseph Pipa's book (The Lord's Day) doesn't seem to attack this position head on. His work seems to focus primarily on those who hold dispensational or NCT positions of the Law.
One applicable argument from Pipa is that in Exodus 16, it is clear from the text that the Israelites were already observing the Sabbath and that the command "Remember" implies that the nation was already aware of the commandment well before the 10 commandments were given.
Thanks.
[Edited on 2-21-2006 by Dan....]
i.e. the position that the Sabbath is binding only on those who are in the covenant community and has no binding authority over those outside the covenant community.
Lee Irons' article may be found here: http://www.upper-register.com/mosaic_law/sabbath_eschatological_sign.html
(10) Promise establishes obligation (Heb. 4:1). Thus, the Sabbath sign is to be observed only by the holy covenant community, for to it alone does the promise of eschatological consummation apply (Heb. 4:9-10; Luke 13:16).
(11) Conversely, since unbelievers have no promise of eschatological consummation, they have no obligation to observe the sign thereof.
(12) It is not biblically permissible for the covenant community to attempt to enforce Sabbath observance on those outside of the covenant community (e.g., blue laws), nor should believers refrain from certain activities solely on the ground that such activity may cause unbelievers to profane the Sabbath.
One obvious concrete application of this is that Christians should feel free to go out to eat at a restaurant on the Lord's Day as part of their rest.
The Sabbath, however, wasn't first and foremost part of Adam's duty toward God, as the other creation ordinances. The Sabbath was a (conditional) promise on the part of God to Adam. This does not mean that there was no duty involved, but the duty flowed from the promise: since Adam was promised the eschatological rest, if he fulfilled the covenant of works, therefore he was to observe the weekly sign of that promised rest. The duty never existed apart from the promise, but came to Adam precisely because of the promise. If promise creates duty, then the duty evaporates as soon as the promise is retracted. After Adam's fall, the promise of eschatological rest is no longer offered to all mankind, only to the covenant community in Christ. Therefore, since the unbeliever has no promise, he has no duty.
As long as the covenant probation was not yet closed in either failure or success, the weekly Sabbath was a sign to him of this great hope. After the fall, however, the covenant probation closed and became covenant curse for all mankind (apart from grace). Thus the unbeliever is under the covenant of works only in the sense that he lies under its condemnation inherited from Adam. The prospect of entering into God's rest by means of the covenant of works no longer remains. It is significant, I believe, that, unlike marriage and labor (Gen. 3:16ff), the Sabbath sign was not reissued after the fall when God established the common grace order for all mankind. The Sabbath sign is not reissued again until the giving of the Mosaic Law.
But aren't unbelievers still in Adam under the covenant of works? Wouldn't it be proper, then, to argue that the Sabbath requirement, as the sign of the covenant of works, remains binding on all men in Adam? This is a plausible argument, but we must distinguish between being under the probation of the covenant of works with its eschatological prospect (the post-fall sons of Adam today are not under that) and being under the curse of the covenant (they are under that). The covenant of works is not an ahistorical "do this and live" principle but a concrete historical administration of God's holy kingdom in time. The covenant breach of the federal head, Adam, changes the nature of the unbeliever's relationship to the covenant in significant ways.
On the other hand, granting all of this evidence pointing to the covenantal nature of the Decalogue, we must also recognize that, with the exception of the fourth commandment, nine of the commandments do constitute a summary of God's moral will - albeit in typological-covenantal form (as seen, for example, in the fifth commandment's promise of long life in the land of Canaan). Although we cannot say that the Decalogue per se is binding on all men, it is certainly legitimate to say that nine of the ten commandments overlap with the moral will of God revealed in creation and conscience.
Joseph Pipa's book (The Lord's Day) doesn't seem to attack this position head on. His work seems to focus primarily on those who hold dispensational or NCT positions of the Law.
One applicable argument from Pipa is that in Exodus 16, it is clear from the text that the Israelites were already observing the Sabbath and that the command "Remember" implies that the nation was already aware of the commandment well before the 10 commandments were given.
Thanks.
[Edited on 2-21-2006 by Dan....]