What are some orthodox Reformed understandings of Rev. 22:17-18 in the context of translational work?

CHSalzgeber

Puritan Board Freshman
I have been following the thread about McCurley’s challenge with some interest but did not want to derail that thread. I trust that the vast majority of folks on this forum have forgotten more than I may ever know about the subject of textual criticism.

As it pertains to translational work (particularly in instances where a given language already has the word of God in their vulgar tongue), when, if ever, does this warning in Revelation (or its OT parallel) have teeth?

I don’t know that I will interact a whole lot with the replies only because I asked this question seeking an answer and not an argument. To this end, any insight that you are led to provide would be of great interest to me and most appreciated.

Thank you in advance for reading!
 

RamistThomist

Puritanboard Clerk
I have been following the thread about McCurley’s challenge with some interest but did not want to derail that thread. I trust that the vast majority of folks on this forum have forgotten more than I may ever know about the subject of textual criticism.

As it pertains to translational work (particularly in instances where a given language already has the word of God in their vulgar tongue), when, if ever, does this warning in Revelation (or its OT parallel) have teeth?

I don’t know that I will interact a whole lot with the replies only because I asked this question seeking an answer and not an argument. To this end, any insight that you are led to provide would be of great interest to me and most appreciated.

Thank you in advance for reading!

Simple. What's sauce for the goose is sauce for the gander. An advocate of the CT can accuse the TR of "adding" to the words of the prophecy.

Now, is that actually the case? Of course not. John is referring to prophetic judgment, not textual criticism. The point, though, is that McCurley's challenge immediately backfires on the TR.
 

Polanus1561

Puritan Board Junior
This perhaps leads to the question of why did Jesus not come to correct all textual errors during His time? Why did not the greatest prophet establish the OT canon and text? He dealt with misinterpretations, but why not the text? One is inclined to wonder.
 
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