greenbaggins
Puritan Board Doctor
The recent thread on re-baptizing gave me some food for thought, such that I believe this question needs to be asked: what gives baptism its validity? The Reformed/Presbyterian answer to this question has always included the following elements: 1. Jesus' institution of the sacrament gives the sacrament itself validity in general; 2. The proper Trinitarian formula (a la Matthew 28); 3. Its communal character (it is a churchly sacrament, not a private affair); 4. Conducting of the baptism by a properly ordained minister of the gospel. 5. Profession of faith by either the person being baptized or by the covenantal parents of the person being baptized.
Of these elements, I am fairly certain that Baptist brothers and sisters would agree with 1 and 2. Some Baptists would reject 3 and 4 while others would not. But almost all Baptists would change the fifth: a genuine confession of faith on the part of the person baptized. Baptists differ in two ways, it seems to me: it has to be genuine at the time of baptism (although I think Piper would demur on this point, whereas Devers would not), whereas Reformed/Presbyterian say that the genuineness of the baptism does not depend on the genuineness of the profession of faith. And, more obviously, Baptists do not believe that a credible profession of faith can be made by anyone on behalf of anyone else. In other words, even if there is a covenantal family structure, that has no impact on profession of faith.
It seems to me, in my own admittedly biased point of view, that the Baptist understanding of validity enters into problems just here when it comes to the fifth element. There seems to be a constant calling of something in a way that contradicts its true nature. Maybe Baptists would simply call it the judgment of charity. I'm not sure. But if the church believes that it has conducted a valid baptism, and for years the person gives no indication otherwise, but is yet unregenerate, theoretically a person could die in an unregenerate state, and yet the church never call that person's baptism invalid, even though it was, at least on Baptist principles. Presbyterians would simply say it was always a valid baptism, but since the person was unregenerate, that sign turns into judgment (see Fesko's excellent work Word, Water, and Spirit for a spectacular exploration of the judgment side of baptism). If a person's actual conversion is in doubt, then doesn't the sign always come under suspicion as well, on Baptist principles? But if baptism is something God primarily does, rather than primarily something we do, then there is never a need to question the validity of the sign, given the presence of the 5 elements above. Instead, if the person shows signs of unregeneracy, the sign retains its validity by turning into judgment. To put things another way, isn't God the one who ensures the validity of the sacrament, not man? Why should the validity of a sacrament which Jesus instituted depend partially (and decisively!) on something man does? Or how can it depend on something God does but man has to discern whether it has happened or not? If the sign is a sign of something God promises (see Acts 2!), how can God's promises be dependent on man's will? And yet this seems to be the way Baptist principles work: the promise God makes in baptism hinges on the genuineness of regeneration.
Imagine another scenario: a person makes a profession of faith which is false, gets baptized, then gets regenerated soon after that, but doesn't realize that the change came after the baptism, instead of before. In this scenario, his baptism is invalid, and yet no one will ever know in this life. It seems to me that Baptists should change their views on what makes baptism valid. In my opinion, it is not necessary to come all the way to the paedo view in order to do this. If Baptists still want to say that a person must make a credible profession of faith in order to get baptized (and be old enough to do that), then say that the baptism is valid whether the profession is genuine or not, then they could avoid some of the errors mentioned above without going whole hog into the paedo position.
Of these elements, I am fairly certain that Baptist brothers and sisters would agree with 1 and 2. Some Baptists would reject 3 and 4 while others would not. But almost all Baptists would change the fifth: a genuine confession of faith on the part of the person baptized. Baptists differ in two ways, it seems to me: it has to be genuine at the time of baptism (although I think Piper would demur on this point, whereas Devers would not), whereas Reformed/Presbyterian say that the genuineness of the baptism does not depend on the genuineness of the profession of faith. And, more obviously, Baptists do not believe that a credible profession of faith can be made by anyone on behalf of anyone else. In other words, even if there is a covenantal family structure, that has no impact on profession of faith.
It seems to me, in my own admittedly biased point of view, that the Baptist understanding of validity enters into problems just here when it comes to the fifth element. There seems to be a constant calling of something in a way that contradicts its true nature. Maybe Baptists would simply call it the judgment of charity. I'm not sure. But if the church believes that it has conducted a valid baptism, and for years the person gives no indication otherwise, but is yet unregenerate, theoretically a person could die in an unregenerate state, and yet the church never call that person's baptism invalid, even though it was, at least on Baptist principles. Presbyterians would simply say it was always a valid baptism, but since the person was unregenerate, that sign turns into judgment (see Fesko's excellent work Word, Water, and Spirit for a spectacular exploration of the judgment side of baptism). If a person's actual conversion is in doubt, then doesn't the sign always come under suspicion as well, on Baptist principles? But if baptism is something God primarily does, rather than primarily something we do, then there is never a need to question the validity of the sign, given the presence of the 5 elements above. Instead, if the person shows signs of unregeneracy, the sign retains its validity by turning into judgment. To put things another way, isn't God the one who ensures the validity of the sacrament, not man? Why should the validity of a sacrament which Jesus instituted depend partially (and decisively!) on something man does? Or how can it depend on something God does but man has to discern whether it has happened or not? If the sign is a sign of something God promises (see Acts 2!), how can God's promises be dependent on man's will? And yet this seems to be the way Baptist principles work: the promise God makes in baptism hinges on the genuineness of regeneration.
Imagine another scenario: a person makes a profession of faith which is false, gets baptized, then gets regenerated soon after that, but doesn't realize that the change came after the baptism, instead of before. In this scenario, his baptism is invalid, and yet no one will ever know in this life. It seems to me that Baptists should change their views on what makes baptism valid. In my opinion, it is not necessary to come all the way to the paedo view in order to do this. If Baptists still want to say that a person must make a credible profession of faith in order to get baptized (and be old enough to do that), then say that the baptism is valid whether the profession is genuine or not, then they could avoid some of the errors mentioned above without going whole hog into the paedo position.