ServantofGod
Puritan Board Junior
I inquired in another thread about what it means to suffer for "righteousness sake." Then I came across this verse in Romans tonight, one that I have read before, and never took the time to realize what it is saying. Romans 8:17:
Now, what does it mean to "suffer with him?" Not all believers are going to be beaten, mocked, ect. for being believers. Yet, aren't all of Christ's elect "heirs of God and co-heirs with Christ?" If so, is all suffering that believers do suffering "with Christ?" Is that different from suffering "for righteousness sake?"
(KJV)And if children, then heirs; heirs of God, and joint-heirs with Christ; if so be that we suffer with him, that we may be also glorified together.
(NASB)and if children, heirs also, heirs of God and fellow heirs with Christ, if indeed we suffer with Him so that we may also be glorified with Him.
(NIV)Now if we are children, then we are heirs—heirs of God and co-heirs with Christ, if indeed we share in his sufferings in order that we may also share in his glory.
(ESV)and if children, then heirs—heirs of God and fellow heirs with Christ, provided we suffer with him in order that we may also be glorified with him.
Now, what does it mean to "suffer with him?" Not all believers are going to be beaten, mocked, ect. for being believers. Yet, aren't all of Christ's elect "heirs of God and co-heirs with Christ?" If so, is all suffering that believers do suffering "with Christ?" Is that different from suffering "for righteousness sake?"