WrittenFromUtopia
Puritan Board Graduate
Which categories of God's Law are binding today on all peoples in substance (not necessarily in administration)?
In other words, is all of God's Law still binding on people today, or only portions of the Law (the Decalogue for example)?
By "all of the Law," I do in fact mean the ceremonial law and judicial/case laws as well, but in application/substance, not in the particular administration as found in OT Israel. For example, Paul applied the judicial/case laws several times in the New Testament. One instance is when he appealed to the case law for not muzzling a treading ox in order to prove that pastors should receive their wages (along with Jesus' teaching in the gospels to pay the laborer his wages, showing that the Law of Christ is 100% compatible with the Law of Moses ...).
While the Ten Commandments are likely almost universally accepted on this board to be binding today, how can they be applied without definitions?
For example, we know that adultery is wrong, but the Decalogue doesn't say beastiality is wrong ... that is a case law, helping explain the intent of the Decalogue. Homosexuality as well.
Another example would be that we are told not to murder in the Decalogue, but the judicial/case laws explain how this is to be applied (as in putting a guard rail around the roof of your house so your guests don't fall off and accidentally die).
I don't see how you can hold the Decalogue to be binding but not the case laws (the judicial law) as well, since they define and apply the Decalogue and, in essence, define it as well.
In other words, is all of God's Law still binding on people today, or only portions of the Law (the Decalogue for example)?
By "all of the Law," I do in fact mean the ceremonial law and judicial/case laws as well, but in application/substance, not in the particular administration as found in OT Israel. For example, Paul applied the judicial/case laws several times in the New Testament. One instance is when he appealed to the case law for not muzzling a treading ox in order to prove that pastors should receive their wages (along with Jesus' teaching in the gospels to pay the laborer his wages, showing that the Law of Christ is 100% compatible with the Law of Moses ...).
While the Ten Commandments are likely almost universally accepted on this board to be binding today, how can they be applied without definitions?
For example, we know that adultery is wrong, but the Decalogue doesn't say beastiality is wrong ... that is a case law, helping explain the intent of the Decalogue. Homosexuality as well.
Another example would be that we are told not to murder in the Decalogue, but the judicial/case laws explain how this is to be applied (as in putting a guard rail around the roof of your house so your guests don't fall off and accidentally die).
I don't see how you can hold the Decalogue to be binding but not the case laws (the judicial law) as well, since they define and apply the Decalogue and, in essence, define it as well.