What was the promise to Adam?

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DanielC

Puritan Board Freshman
I have some questions about the nature of the promise to Adam upon perfect and personal obedience in the Covenant of Works:

What do we mean by "life" here?

Is this continued, sinless, happy existence on earth, or would it have been eternal life with eternal security, no longer being under the threatenings attached to the law?

I don't want to be speculative where I shouldn't be, but I think this has some bearing on what Christ accomplished by His perfect obedience. Did Christ earn anything for us by His obedience that Adam never could have?

My initial thought is yes, because He is the unique Son, the rightful heir of heaven by position - does this add anything Adam couldn't have by his obedience?
Is there anything we gain by the fact that Adam is earthy, with earthy progeny - made from dirt and then given a soul - whereasour new federal head Jesus is the Heavenly Man, with heavenly progeny - true spirit from heaven who then took on flesh?
If there was a probationary period, after which Adam would have earned his way out from under the threat of the CoW, at what point did it end - when he ate the fruit of the Tree of Life? or after a certain amount of time? How do we arrive at this sort of position Biblically? If when he took the fruit of the Tree of Life, how was this covenant keeping merit? - for the command was not that he must eat of the Tree of Life, but rather that he must not eat from the Tree of the knowledge of Good and Evil.

Or did the putting on of the incorruptable require that the seed/body must first die, which would require sin?
Does the putting on of the incorruptable require that we must be united to a heavenly Head, rather than an earthy, and this in turn requires the Incarnation, which presupposes sin?

I think that after some reading, I've discovered I'm in the dissenting position, which isn't comfortable. But I don't understand how so many have arrived at the view that Adam was promised eternal life and incorruptability after a finite yet indefinite period of time? Would someone mind please helping me along in understanding how we've arrived at that position scripturally? I've read Turretin, Shaw, A.A. Hodge, Fisher, Berkhof, etc., but am having difficulty following their logic, or am simple not (yet) persuaded by it. Any insight here would be appreciated. Thanks!
 
[Scene opens]

Scrooge is sitting in his bed chamber eating some soup (a blob of mustard or a bit of old beef)

Door begins to rattle.

Bells ring.

Scrooge looks up to the door in fright.

Jacob Marley comes floating in through the door all cahined up.

Jacob says, "R---e----a----d W----i----t----s----i----u----s!"

:lol:

No really, read Witsius's book 1. He does an excellent job laying that out.

Or you can read a summary here:

http://www.apuritansmind.com/Baptism/McMahonSummaryWitsiusEconomy.htm
 
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