What was the Secret of Gideon's Strength? Judges 6:11-14

[Ed Walsh]

Greetings,

I almost posted this in Daily Devotions, but I wanted to hear from some of you first.

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The chapter begins with the usual, "And the children of Israel did evil in the sight of the Lord: and the Lord delivered them into the hand of Midian seven years." (vs. 1)

Gideon is introduced to us threshing wheat in secret, hiding from the Midianites. (vs. 11) Not exactly a picture of strength.

Next, the Angel of the Lord (preincarnate Son of God) addresses Gideon with these seemingly out of character words. "The Lord is with thee, thou mighty man of valour." (vs 12)

To which Gideon answers with (apparently) words of doubt or rank unbelief.

"Oh my Lord, if the Lord be with us, why then is all this befallen us? And where be all his miracles which our fathers told us of, saying, Did not the Lord bring us up from Egypt? but now the Lord hath forsaken us, and delivered us into the hands of the Midianites." (vs. 13)​

Immediately the Angel gives Gideon a command and refers to his statement of faith in the previous verse.

"And the Lord looked upon him, and said, Go in this thy might, and thou shalt save Israel from the hand of the Midianites: have not I sent thee?"​

I think the "this" can only be referring to Gideon's negative statement above. (vs. 14)

I know what I think, but I want to hear from you.

Q. So why was Gideon's statement in vs. 13 a strong demonstration of his faith?

 

[Contra_Mundum]

No, I think that that "this, thy might,...:" (note the colon at the close) refers to the statement at the end, "Have I not sent thee." "This" is the expression--wherein he is to believe--I have sent thee.

Don't always have to look back to find the referent in an antecedent; it may be ahead in the dialog.

 

[Jack K]

I think the angel emphasizes that the might is Gideon's because Gideon clearly has little worldly might in himself: "My clan is the weakest in Manasseh, and I am the least..." in v. 15. Yet Gideon does have might, because the Lord sends him. That is the point, both here and throughout the Gideon account.

As for Gideon's complaint that the Lord had forsaken them and was not doing the miracles he did in days of old... I'm not sure it is rank unbelief. There are psalms that express similar sentiments. To ask why the Lord has not delivered his people is still a way of looking to the Lord and acknowledging that salvation must come from him. Now, it may be that Gideon is scoffing at the whole notion that God ever was with his people, and if so, that would be unbelief. But I think it's also possible Gideon is merely frustrated with God, which is understandable. Certainly, Gideon's faith needs bolstering throughout the account, and it would be admirable if he believed more readily, but his initial statement might not be one of unbelief.

Not that it matters, since I agree with Bruce that Gideon's faith is not what the angel is referring to.