Afterthought
Puritan Board Senior
Often, whenever a commentary or anyone exegetes a Psalm, first will come the historical background--What did this psalm mean in its original context? Usually, the historical background is something like "Solomon had many wives and perhaps this is one of them he is talking about" (Psalm 45), or other such things (like a psalm praising a king of Israel that forshadowed Christ) that seem to conflict with....the psalms being worship songs in Israel. Indeed, it seems like such things are inappropriate to be in a worship song to God, yet if that was all that Israel was left with or co-opted into the service of God, then it certainly seem strange; wouldn't such suggest that perhaps that is not the original context of the Psalm? Yet, I notice that most people will exegete the Psalm to include such elements as part of the Psalm's original context. So now my question: Is it appropriate to interpret psalms that way, and if it is (and I'm guessing it is), why is it appropriate, and how does that fit with the psalms being Israel's worship songs?
I hope I wrote that out clearly enough! Thanks for any help!
I hope I wrote that out clearly enough! Thanks for any help!
Last edited: