Where does second person pronoun number actually make a difference in Scripture?

[Taylor]

I searched to see if there was a thread devoted to this topic, but couldn't find one.

Our modern Bibles do not distinguish between the second person singular and plural. But, what I want to know is this: Where in Scripture does this actually make a difference? The only two I can think of off the top of my head are Luke 22:31:

And the Lord said, “Simon, Simon! Indeed, Satan has asked for you (i.e., the disciples, not just Peter), that he may sift you as wheat.​

...and Exodus 16:28:

And the LORD said to Moses, “How long do you (i.e., the nation of Israel, not Moses) refuse to keep My commandments and My laws?​

Some translations mark one of both of these instances. Does anyone have any other examples?

Note: Any attempt to begin debates or arguments about translations will be considered off-topic. I just want information here.

 

[Logan]

Those are the examples I have seen used as well. I can't recall any others off the top of my head.

Some believe it is preferable to pray using the singular form when talking of God (who is one) rather than the possibly ambiguous "you", so when Scripture refers to God they might feel it makes a difference.

 

[C. M. Sheffield]

Know ye not that ye are the temple of God, and that the Spirit of God dwelleth in you? 1 Cor. 3:16. This verse is speaking of the corporate church as the Temple, but the average Christian assumes he is speaking of the individual believer.

 

[Solparvus]

Exodus 20 - The Ten Commandments, publicly given, address "you" in the singular. "This is what you, as an accountable individual, are required to do, or prohibited from doing."

Romans 11 - To hone in the warning of being broken off from the visible church, Paul who had been using "you" plural, switches to "you" singular. "You, my reader, take this personally and seriously as concerning yourself."

 

[Taylor]

Know ye not that ye are the temple of God, and that the Spirit of God dwelleth in you? 1 Cor. 3:16. This verse is speaking of the corporate church as the Temple, but the average Christian assumes he is speaking of the individual believer.

Yes, I recall this one now, as well. I worked closely years ago with my pastor in Illinois when he preached through 1 Corinthians, and I remember this being mentioned in the commentaries.

 

[py3ak]

John 3:7.

 

[C. M. Sheffield]

Mark 1:15

 

[TheInquirer]

The indwelling of the Spirit one seems tricky. If I am addressing a large group of people and I am telling them that each one of them singularly has the Spirit, wouldn’t I still use the plural form?

 

[Contra_Mundum]

Joshua 1:5-9

 

[Taylor]

I think my OP was insufficient. I should have asked, “Where does the second person pronoun number make a difference in Scripture where the number cannot be ascertained in context?” The context of Mark 1:15 and Joshua 1:5-9 tell us the second person pronouns are plural and singular, respectively. Mark 1:15 has Jesus preaching in a region, presumably to crowds. Joshua 1:1 tells us the Lord was speaking “unto Joshua.”

 

[Contra_Mundum]

Joshua 1:1 does say that the Lord spoke to Joshua, and begins with a singular direct address, which is accompanied by plural "your" and "you" in v3, reference to "the children of Israel/them" in v2.

Furthermore, it is quite common for preachers and readers to apply the further direct address of vv5-9 to people (or God's people) in general. The address is uniformly singular, and is addressed to Joshua, which is actually significant for a proper interpretation and treatment of the passage. And yet, this is probably a primary OT passage where that fact is routinely passed over.

Is Joshua a stand-in for "the typical/atypical believer?" Or is the run-of-the-mill pew sitter ordinary Christian Joe or Jane most directly identifiable with the (unnamed) individuals numbered among the children of Israel in this passage?

I think the distinction between the plurals and the singulars in the passage makes for a powerful witness to the (only) way in which God's people should expect to be strong, courageous, fearless, undismayed, obedient, and ultimately prosperous.

Because without that clarity and awareness, this place easily becomes a quintessential "prosperity gospel" passage.

 

[Jeri Tanner]

Psalm 11:1, “In the LORD put I my trust: how say ye to my soul, Flee as a bird to your mountain?”

 

[Taylor]

Joshua 1:1 does say that the Lord spoke to Joshua, and begins with a singular direct address, which is accompanied by plural "your" and "you" in v3, reference to "the children of Israel/them" in v2.

Furthermore, it is quite common for preachers and readers to apply the further direct address of vv5-9 to people (or God's people) in general. The address is uniformly singular, and is addressed to Joshua, which is actually significant for a proper interpretation and treatment of the passage. And yet, this is probably a primary OT passage where that fact is routinely passed over.

Is Joshua a stand-in for "the typical believer?" Or is the run-of-the-mill pew sitter ordinary Christian Joe or Jane most directly identifiable with the (unnamed) individuals numbered among the children of Israel in this passage?

I think the distinction between the plurals and the singulars in the passage makes for a powerful witness to the (only) way in which God's people should expect to be strong, courageous, fearless, undismayed, obedient, and ultimately prosperous.

Because without that clarity and awareness, this place easily becomes a quintessential "prosperity gospel" passage.

That’s helpful, Pastor Bruce. I figured that’s where you were going with that passage.

 

[Jeri Tanner]

It could be argued that the context of the whole of Psalm 20 makes it clear that a singular person (Person) is being addressed throughout, but the use of thee and thy does away with any confusion; “The LORD hear thee in the day of trouble; the name of the God of Jacob defend thee...”

 

[Jake]

A slightly off topic comment: I have one interesting volume, a New Testament paperback of a version called "Modern Young's Literal Translation" which slightly updates the language of the Young's Literal Translation. It uses the modern "you" for both singular and plural, but notates above the singular you with a "s" and plural with a "p" for each instance it occurs. I haven't seen anything similar in any other Bibles, but it seems like this could be easier for folks to adapt to then a convention that has been almost entirely forgotten in today's English.