I searched to see if there was a thread devoted to this topic, but couldn't find one.
Our modern Bibles do not distinguish between the second person singular and plural. But, what I want to know is this: Where in Scripture does this actually make a difference? The only two I can think of off the top of my head are Luke 22:31:
...and Exodus 16:28:
Some translations mark one of both of these instances. Does anyone have any other examples?
Note: Any attempt to begin debates or arguments about translations will be considered off-topic. I just want information here.
Our modern Bibles do not distinguish between the second person singular and plural. But, what I want to know is this: Where in Scripture does this actually make a difference? The only two I can think of off the top of my head are Luke 22:31:
And the Lord said, “Simon, Simon! Indeed, Satan has asked for you (i.e., the disciples, not just Peter), that he may sift you as wheat.
...and Exodus 16:28:
And the LORD said to Moses, “How long do you (i.e., the nation of Israel, not Moses) refuse to keep My commandments and My laws?
Some translations mark one of both of these instances. Does anyone have any other examples?
Note: Any attempt to begin debates or arguments about translations will be considered off-topic. I just want information here.