WrittenFromUtopia
Puritan Board Graduate
Which way does it go, and why?
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Originally posted by SolaScriptura
Your choices are inadequate. You need a category that says "Both Testaments interpret each other."
Originally posted by SolaScriptura
Your choices are inadequate. You need a category that says "Both Testaments interpret each other."
I like too how Augustine, as a pastor, presupposes the general perspicuity of Holy Scripture, when he states...Augustine (354-430): But where the matter is obvious, we ought not to add our interpretation to the meaning of the divine Scripture, for this is not done out of human ignorance, but out of perverse pride. John E. Rotelle, O.S.A., ed., Works of Saint Augustine, Answer to the Pelagians, II, Answer to Julian, Book V:7, Part 1, Vol. 24, trans. Roland J. Teske, S.J. (Hyde Park: New City Press, 1998), p. 436.
Indeed, generally speaking, it was a patristic principle that Holy Scripture is a self-interpretation revelation...Augustine (354-430): Our volumes are put up for sale in public; the light never needs to blush. Let them buy them, read them, believe them; or else buy them, read them, make fun of them. Those Scriptures know how to hold people guilty who read them and don´t believe. John E. Rotelle, O.S.A., ed., Works of Saint Augustine, Newly Discovered Sermons, Part 3, Vol. 11, trans. Edmund Hill, O.P., Sermon 198.20 (Hyde Park: New City Press, 1997), pp. 195-196.
Chrysostom (349-407): You see, despite the use of such precision (avkri,beia) by Sacred Scripture, some people have not questioned the glib words of arrogant commentators and farfetched philosophy, even to the extent of denying Holy Writ and saying the garden was not on earth, giving contrary views on many other passages, taking a direction opposed to a literal understanding of the text, and thinking that what is said on the question of things on earth has to do with things in heaven. And, if blessed Moses had not used such simplicity of expression and considerateness, the Holy Spirit directing his tongue, where would we not have come to grief? Sacred Scripture, though, whenever it wants to teach us something like this, gives its own interpretation, and doesn´t let the listener go astray. . . . So, I beg you, block your ears against all distractions of that kind, and let us follow the norm of Sacred Scripture. FC, Vol. 74, Homilies on Genesis 1-17, 13.13 (Washington, D.C.: The Catholic University of America Press, 1986), p. 175.
Chrysostom (349-407): There is something else we can learn here. What sort of thing is it? It is when it is necessary to allegorize Scripture. We ourselves are not the lords over the rules of interpretation, but must pursue Scripture´s understanding of itself, and in that way make use of the allegorical method. What I mean is this. The Scripture has just now spoken of a vineyard, wall, and wine-vat. The reader is not permitted to become lord of the passage and apply the words to whatever events or people he chooses. The Scripture interprets itself with the words, "œAnd the house of Israel is the vineyard of the Lord Sabaoth." To give another example, Ezekiel describes a large, great-winged eagle which enters Lebanon and takes off the top of a cedar. The interpretation of the allegory does not lie in the whim of the readers, but Ezekiel himself speaks, and tells first what the eagle is and then what the cedar is. To take another example from Isaiah himself, when he raises a mighty river against Judah, he does not leave it to the imagination of the reader to apply it to whatever person he chooses, but he names the king whom he has referred to as a river. This is everywhere a rule in Scripture: when it wants to allegorize, it tells the interpretation of the allegory, so that the passage will not be interpreted superficially or be met by the undisciplined desire of those who enjoy allegorization to wander about and be carried in every direction. Why are you surprised that the prophets should observe this rule? Even the author of Proverbs does this. For he said, "œLet your loving doe and graceful filly accompany you, and let your spring of water be for you alone." Then he interprets these terms to refer to one´s free and lawful wife; he rejects the grasp of the prostitute and other woman. Duane A. Garrett, An Analysis of the Hermeneutics of John Chrysostom´s Commentary on Isaiah 1-8 with an English Translation, Isaiah Chapter 5 (Lewiston/Queenston/Lampeter: The Edwin Mellen Press, 1992), pp. 110-111.
Originally posted by Contra_Mundum
Pastor King,
I really appreciate the quotations you have culled from the Fathers over the years, and take the time to post for our edificaiton. Thanks again.
Furthermore, in order to restrain petulant spirits, It decrees, that no one, relying on his own skill, shall,--in matters of faith, and of morals pertaining to the edification of Christian doctrine, --wresting the sacred Scripture to his own senses, presume to interpret the said sacred Scripture contrary to that sense which holy mother Church,--whose it is to judge of the true sense and interpretation of the holy Scriptures,--hath held and doth hold; or even contrary to the unanimous consent of the Fathers; even though such interpretations were never (intended) to be at any time published. Contraveners shall be made known by their Ordinaries, and be punished with the penalties by law established.
Originally posted by Civbert
Christ interpreted the OT. So I tend to see the NT as an explanation or resolution of the OT. Therefore I lean toward the NT interpreting the OT.
Originally posted by Me Died Blue
Originally posted by Civbert
Christ interpreted the OT. So I tend to see the NT as an explanation or resolution of the OT. Therefore I lean toward the NT interpreting the OT.
But would not much of the material in the New Testament be lacking or at least unclear in meaning if a reader had never been exposed to the Old Testament?
Originally posted by C. Matthew McMahon
There is nothing contained in the NT that the OT does not contain or explain. If we miss that, it is due to the hardness of our hearts to see the truth clearly.
Paul's, Jesus', Peter's et al. Bible was Genesis-Malachi.
There is, for example, no mention whatsoever of baptism in the OT.
Originally posted by C. Matthew McMahon
However, the point still remains - there is nothing contained in the NT that was not first in the OT. Jesus came to explain, of "exegete" the Father more "thoroughly" to us, not "newly" to us. To miss this is due to the hardness of our heart to see things clearly in the OT (which is the very reason it laid out as it is in the NT). The NT documents themselves prove the point - we are hard hearted.
Absolutely! As I wrote:-Our own Lord's words testify to this:
Luk 24:25 And he said to them, "O foolish ones, and slow of heart to believe all that the prophets have spoken!
Luk 24:26 Was it not necessary that the Christ should suffer these things and enter into his glory?"
Luk 24:27 And beginning with Moses and all the Prophets, he interpreted to them in all the Scriptures the things concerning himself.
He didn't say "And beginning with Romans..."
However, that does not mean that the New Covenant is not 'new.'John 5:39. 'These are [the Scriptures] that testify of Me.' The OT is all about the Lord Jesus Christ and we should expect to find Him there constantly.
If all you are saying is, "The New is in the Old concealed, the Old is in the New revealed" then that is knindergarten stuff and we have no disagreement.
Originally posted by C. Matthew McMahonWe cannot find anything ideally in the NT not in the OT in this manner.
Originally posted by just_grace
Originally posted by C. Matthew McMahonWe cannot find anything ideally in the NT not in the OT in this manner.
For the deep thinker your probably right Matthew, but for people on the street, they need to hear the Gospel, and the first phrase of Hebrews puts it like this...
"Long ago, at many times and in many ways, God spoke to our fathers by the prophets, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also he created the world."
God has revealed a lot more through His Son than He ever did in the OT and prophets, in my honest opinion.
[Edited on 12-25-2005 by just_grace]
Originally posted by just_grace
"Long ago, at many times and in many ways, God spoke to our fathers by the prophets, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also he created the world."
God has revealed a lot more through His Son than He ever did in the OT and prophets, in my honest opinion.
Originally posted by Me Died Blue
Originally posted by just_grace
"Long ago, at many times and in many ways, God spoke to our fathers by the prophets, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also he created the world."
God has revealed a lot more through His Son than He ever did in the OT and prophets, in my honest opinion.
Everyone here would agree that Christ (and God's kingdom as a whole) is more clearly and explicitly revealed in the New Testament than in the Old - but there is not actually anything in substance or at heart that is revealed in the New that had not also already been revealed in the Old, any more than the "new" commandment that Christ gave in John 13:34 actually revealed anything new in substance from what was revealed through Moses in Leviticus 19:18 (as is further explained in 1 John 1-2).
Originally posted by Me Died Blue
Originally posted by just_grace
"Long ago, at many times and in many ways, God spoke to our fathers by the prophets, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also he created the world."
God has revealed a lot more through His Son than He ever did in the OT and prophets, in my honest opinion.
Everyone here would agree that Christ (and God's kingdom as a whole) is more clearly and explicitly revealed in the New Testament than in the Old - but there is not actually anything in substance or at heart that is revealed in the New that had not also already been revealed in the Old, any more than the "new" commandment that Christ gave in John 13:34 actually revealed anything new in substance from what was revealed through Moses in Leviticus 19:18 (as is further explained in 1 John 1-2).