Why are these so different?

[Kim G]

Last night during our church's prayer meeting, our pastor read from I Samuel 17, verse 29.

• In the KJV, it says--And David said, What have I now done? Is there not a cause?
  
• Same with the NKJ--And David said, “What have I done now? Is there not a cause?”

However, all of the other versions, including the Bible in French and Spanish, says the following:

• NIV--"Now what have I done?" said David. "Can't I even speak?"
  
• NAS--But David said, "What have I done now? Was it not just a question?"
  
• ESV--And David said, "What have I done now? Was it not but a word?"
  
• NLT--"What have I done now?” David replied. “I was only asking a question!”
  
• French, Louis Segond--David répondit: Qu'ai-je donc fait? ne puis-je pas parler ainsi?
  
• Spanish, Riena-Valera--David respondió: ¿Qué he hecho yo ahora? ¿No es esto mero hablar?

What's going on here? What in the original language allows for such a different translation?

 

[Davidius]

Luther translates it as...

• David antwortete: Was habe ich dir nun getan? Ist mir's nicht befohlen? (David answered, "What now have I done to you? Was I not ordered?")
  
  
  
  

 

[larryjf]

It's just a difference in translating the same underlying word.
The meaning of the word translated is "speech" or "word" so by implication it can mean "cause"

 

[TimV]

The Afrikaans version translated from the TR is also better than the KJV, "Ek vra maar net" "I just asked".

Another case of how using a foreign language, specifically 16th century English makes something difficult to understand. The Strong's word for "cause" is 1697, dabar and it means to say something.