Hello all,
So I've been studying paedobaptism for a while now and I am listening to William Shishko's series in Christian Baptism (highly recommended, regardless of your persuasion). Here is one thing I haven't figured out. Why are female infants baptized? In the OT circumcision rites, only the male children were circumcised. I'm not making the circumcision=baptism argument, but it is often pointed out that the household receives the covenant sign. In the OT, it was only the males. In the NT, its males and females. Why is this? Thanks.
So I've been studying paedobaptism for a while now and I am listening to William Shishko's series in Christian Baptism (highly recommended, regardless of your persuasion). Here is one thing I haven't figured out. Why are female infants baptized? In the OT circumcision rites, only the male children were circumcised. I'm not making the circumcision=baptism argument, but it is often pointed out that the household receives the covenant sign. In the OT, it was only the males. In the NT, its males and females. Why is this? Thanks.