B.L.Smith
Puritan Board Freshman
Prior to Jesus being baptized, John was confused about why Jesus would want to be baptized. Why? Many commentators say it's because John's baptism is a baptism of repentance (Mark 1:4) but this would have to mean that John the Baptist would then know that Jesus is the sinless Son of God and the Messiah Right? But how? I mean, isn't the whole reason why John is baptizing with water is to reveal the Messiah (John 1:31). So why prevent Jesus? I mean, if John the Baptist didn't know he was the Messiah then why prevent him?