Why I reject Immersion-Only Baptism

Status
Not open for further replies.
Many koine Greek words acquired a specialized Christian usage distinct from its original meaning e.g. agape. It also should be noted that although the writers of the NT had another Greek word for immerse egkataduno which means “sink beneath,” yet the word baptiso was consistently used to refer to that rite, and egkataduno is never used.

This is an interesting point and I would also love to hear a credo-immersionist response about this term egkataduno.
 
This is not just an issue concerning Baptists, the entire Eastern (Greek) Orthodox typically insists that immersion is the proper mode.

Quote: "The Eastern Orthodox hold that baptism has always been by immersion and it is not proper to perform baptism by way of sprinkling of water.[188]"

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=uQzHH7qMqSs

And many in the Western Church agree that this was the mode of the early church:

John Calvin -"The very word "baptize however, signifies to IMMERSE, and it is certain that IMMERSION was the practice of the ancient church."(Institutes of the Christian Religion, chp 15)

Martin Luther -" I could wish that the baptized should be totally IMMERSED according to the meaning of the word."

Philip Schaff -"IMMERSION and not sprinkling was unquestionably the original normal form of baptism. This is shown by the meaning of the Greek word and the analogy of the baptism of John which was performed in Jordan." (History of the Apostolic Church, p.568).

Cardinal Gibbons -"For several centuries after the establishment of Christianity baptism was usually conferred by IMMERSION; but since the 12th century the practice of baptism by infusion has prevailed in the Catholic church, as this manner is attained with less inconvenience than by IMMERSION (Faith of our Fathers p. 317)

John Wesley -commenting on Rom 6:4- "We are buried with Him- alluding to the ancient manner of baptism by IMMERSION (Explanatory notes Upon the New Testament, p. 376)

George Whitefield -commenting on Rom 6:4- "It is certain that the words of our text is an allusion to the manner of baptism by IMMERSION

Conybeare and Howson -commenting on Rom 6:4-":This passage cannot be undersood unless it is understood that the primitive baptism was by IMMERSION."
 
This is not just an issue concerning Baptists, the entire Eastern (Greek) Orthodox typically insists that immersion is the proper mode.

Quote: "The Eastern Orthodox hold that baptism has always been by immersion and it is not proper to perform baptism by way of sprinkling of water.[188]"

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=uQzHH7qMqSs

And many in the Western Church agree that this was the mode of the early church:

John Calvin -"The very word "baptize however, signifies to IMMERSE, and it is certain that IMMERSION was the practice of the ancient church."(Institutes of the Christian Religion, chp 15)

Martin Luther -" I could wish that the baptized should be totally IMMERSED according to the meaning of the word."

Philip Schaff -"IMMERSION and not sprinkling was unquestionably the original normal form of baptism. This is shown by the meaning of the Greek word and the analogy of the baptism of John which was performed in Jordan." (History of the Apostolic Church, p.568).

Cardinal Gibbons -"For several centuries after the establishment of Christianity baptism was usually conferred by IMMERSION; but since the 12th century the practice of baptism by infusion has prevailed in the Catholic church, as this manner is attained with less inconvenience than by IMMERSION (Faith of our Fathers p. 317)

John Wesley -commenting on Rom 6:4- "We are buried with Him- alluding to the ancient manner of baptism by IMMERSION (Explanatory notes Upon the New Testament, p. 376)

George Whitefield -commenting on Rom 6:4- "It is certain that the words of our text is an allusion to the manner of baptism by IMMERSION

Conybeare and Howson -commenting on Rom 6:4-":This passage cannot be undersood unless it is understood that the primitive baptism was by IMMERSION."

No one is disputing that immersion is a valid form of baptism or indeed that your list of quotations is not impressive. What non-exclusive immersionists are arguing is that the Scriptures do not teach that immersion is the only valid mode. That you have not established by exegesis. Even if we were to concede that Romans 6:4 was immersion, that does not deal with the other passages such as Acts 1:5 that teach baptiso is a pouring.
 
Hi:

FYI: The complete quote from Calvin reads:

But whether the person being baptized should be wholly immersed, and whether thrice or once, whether he should only be sprinkled with poured water - these details are of no importance, but ought to be optional to churches according to the diversity of countries. Yet the word "baptize" means to immerse, and it is clear that the rite of immersion was observed in the ancient church, Institutes 4:15:19.

Blessings,

Rob
 
There is also the question of reading anachronistic definitions of baptism into the word "immersion." For instance, such a concept would not necessarily entail the modern practice of being bent backwards in a semi-horizontal position and being carried under water that way, followed by being promptly being lifted out of the water. The word could have simply meant that a person knelt down in a pool or body of water and then had the water poured over his head. Or it could mean the person dipped himself (kneeling down so that the head is underwater). Exactly how do Greek Orthodox perform baptisms? I ask in ignorance; I'm trying the recall the scene from "My Big Fat Greek Wedding," but I don't remember that resembling an immersion as it might be commonly thought of in the American church.
 
Dr. Ferguson,

I don't consider myself to be a full-fledged immersionist in the sense that term is usually used - "immersion is though only effectual mode of baptism." As a result of my own study of the issue, however, I have become convinced that immersion was normally, and perhaps even always used by the NT church.

Your paper essentially looks at the same issues, and uses the same basic arguments that have been forwarded by many modern writers who urge against seeing immersion in various NT contexts. I believe compelling arguments can be made to counter most of them. If you're really interested in discussing objections, then maybe you could highlight one or two points in your paper that you find the most convincing, and we could start there.


Many koine Greek words acquired a specialized Christian usage distinct from its original meaning e.g. agape. It also should be noted that although the writers of the NT had another Greek word for immerse egkataduno which means “sink beneath,” yet the word baptiso was consistently used to refer to that rite, and egkataduno is never used.

This is an interesting point and I would also love to hear a credo-immersionist response about this term egkataduno.

Pergamum, both the bapto and duno family of words can include the concept of "immersion" in their usage. However, baptizo often carries the further connotation of a commensurate "emmersion" as well, while duno almost always carries the connotation of being permanantly submerged. The French-Swiss Reformed classicist and philologist Isaac Casaubon (1559–1614), who was Professor of Greek at the Genevan Academy from 1581-96, was one among many who have pointed this out:

For [in apostolic times] the rite of baptizing was performed by immersion in water: which the word baptizein sufficiently declares; nor does this have the same significance as dunein, which is “to sink to the bottom and perish.” It is also certainly not the same as epipolazein, [‘swim on the surface’]. For these three words, epipolazein, baptizein, and dunein, have different meanings. Hence we can see that it is not without reason that the ancients contended for an immersion of the entire body in the ceremony of baptism; for they emphasized the import of baptizein.​

(Novi Testamenti Libri Omnis, cum Notis Issaci Casauboni, (Geneva: Eustache Vignon, 1587), on Matthew 3:6; my translation. Latin: Hic enim suit baptizandi ritus ut in aquas immergerentur, quod vel ipsa vox βαπτίζειν declarat satis; quae ut non significat δύνειν, quod est ‘fundum petere cum sua pernicie’, ita profecto non est έπιπολάζειν. Differunt enim haec tria έπιπολάζειν, βαπτίζειν, δύνειν. Unde intelligimus non esse abs re quod jampridem nonnulli disputarunt de toto corpore immergendo in ceremonia baptismi: vocem enim βαπτίζειν urgebant.; [Criticorum Sacrorum Tomus Sextus, Exhibens Annotata in Quatuor, {Amsterdam: Guilielmun vande Water, 1698}, 97.)​
 
Brother,

My point was that your paper only addressed Baptists, when in fact the Eastern Church typically holds the same position. Immersion is the catholic mode of the Church.
 
John Calvin -"The very word "baptize however, signifies to IMMERSE, and it is certain that IMMERSION was the practice of the ancient church."(Institutes of the Christian Religion, chp 15)

But whether the person being baptized should be wholly immersed, and whether thrice or once, whether he should only be sprinkled with poured water - these details are of no importance, but ought to be optional to churches according to the diversity of countries. Yet the word "baptize" means to immerse, and it is clear that the rite of immersion was observed in the ancient church, Institutes 4:15:19.

Funny how what someone says can be changed by sound bites.
 
Interesting. While trying to find the scene from MBFGW on Youtube, I came across several videos of EO baptisms. The first was a Greek orthodox baptism of an adult man. It took place in a shallow (but not that shallow) pool, where the man was bent forward until his head went under (three times). The second was the baptism of a young girl in a Russian Orthodox church. She climbed into a tub, knelt down, and then (at the priest's prompting) held her nose and stuck her own face (but not her head or most of her body) in the water. The priest then splashed water on her as she did so. This was also done three times.

In the first example, I believe there were images of Christ in the video so I won't post that, but here is the video of the baptism of the little girl:

[video=youtube;IMVyDVX7hMI]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IMVyDVX7hMI[/video]

Then, I clicked on this short video which shows an EO baptism by immersion in a frozen section of the Ural River (!). The participant essentially baptizes himself by dipping his head underwater three times:

[video=youtube;0U194PCFcqo]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=0U194PCFcqo[/video]

Finally, I found this video in a Greek Orthodox church of an infant baptism. The infant is baptized naked (video is out-of-focus) three times in a large urn-like container. The infant is lowered down but not actually immersed all the way. The priest then appears to pour or splash water on the head of the infant.

[video=youtube;a2Ml24KCvoA]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=a2Ml24KCvoA[/video]

Conclusion, other than the baptisms being three-fold, that's about all they have in common. The practice is hardly uniform. In at least one case, the participant baptizes himself, and two are not immersions in the "full" sense. One of the baptisms is done naked, two in underwear, one in full clothing. None are bent backwards in the traditional Baptist way of immersion (which, incidentally, is the way I was immersed).
 
The Roman Catholic congregation in my town baptizes by immersion. Even the infants.
Not sure why this is their practice. Maybe the restorationist/revivalists roots in my part of Kentucky?
 
John Calvin -"The very word "baptize however, signifies to IMMERSE, and it is certain that IMMERSION was the practice of the ancient church."(Institutes of the Christian Religion, chp 15)

But whether the person being baptized should be wholly immersed, and whether thrice or once, whether he should only be sprinkled with poured water - these details are of no importance, but ought to be optional to churches according to the diversity of countries. Yet the word "baptize" means to immerse, and it is clear that the rite of immersion was observed in the ancient church, Institutes 4:15:19.

Funny how what someone says can be changed by sound bites.

The full context of Calvin's remarks actually raises another question for me: How does the position that immersion was used by the NT church (and I cannot find where Calvin ever asserted otherwise), but then insisting that other modes are just as good, comport with the RPW? In one place Calvin even explains his position by saying that "the church did grant herself the liberty to change the rite [of baptism by immersion] somewhat."

However, thats another thread...(which maybe I'll start sometime later).
 
Willie,

My nephew was baptized by immersion in the Roman Catholic Church in Arkansas. The church recently had an immersion pool built and the priest said that is was the practice of the early church.
 
The full context of Calvin's remarks actually raises another question for me: How does the position that immersion was used by the NT church (and I cannot find where Calvin ever asserted otherwise), but then insisting that other modes are just as good, comport with the RPW? In one place Calvin even explains his position by saying that "the church did grant herself the liberty to change the rite [of baptism by immersion] somewhat."

That is very interesting. There is another possibility to note: maybe Calvin was wrong (gasp!). In the Beveridge edition of the Institutes, there is the following footnote on this section:

In this sentence Calvin makes three assertions: (1) that the mode of baptism is a matter of complete indifference (“not of the least consequence”). (2) that it is evident that the term “baptize” means to immerse. (3) that immersion was the mode used by the primitive Church. These assertions deserve thoughtful consideration. Perhaps the following observations will be helpful: (1) Behind Calvin’s complete indifference to mode lies an important distinction - the distinction between the substance or matter of the sacraments, and the mode or form of the sacraments; or to put it another way, the distinction between the essentials and the accidentals of the sacraments. For Calvin, the essential elements of the proper administration of baptism include: (a) a proper consecration, which includes the words of institution, the promises and obligations connected with the sacrament, and prayer; (b) a proper distribution, which involves the application of water in the name of the Trinity; and (c) a proper reception, which consists of faith, repentance, and an obedient spirit on the part of the recipient (or , in the case of infants, on the part of the parents). Beyond these, other aspects of the sacrament are “not of the least consequence,” but are purely matters of expediency (such as differences of national or local custom, or diversity or climate). (2) The contention that the word translate “baptize” means to immerse is true in many instances of its usage in the Greek classics, so many of which had been rediscovered in the Renaissance which preceded the Reformation period. It was no doubt in these works that Calvin found the word “baptize” to mean “immerse”. However, from a study of its usage in the Septuagient (the Greek translation of the Hebrew Old Testament, made about 250-200 B.C.); and from a careful examination of its usage in the New Testament; we discover that this word, during the history of its usage, enlarged its scope of meaning to include, along with its classical definition of “to submerge, to immerse, and to dip,” the further meanings of “to bathe in or with water, to wash.” It should be noted that two of the most highly regarded Greek lexicons—Thayer’s and Arndt and Gingrich’s—bear witness to this enlarged scope of meaning. As far as the New Testament meaning of the word “baptize” is concerned, it must be decided by a study, in each instance, of its usage in context. Such a study reveals that the word “baptize” does not mean immersion (although immersion could have been used in a number of cases). On the other hand, the same study reveals that “baptize” does not mean pouring or sprinkling either! The word, as used in the New Testament, does not mean a particular mode. Whenever it is used to refer to Christian water baptism, it means “to perform the Christian ceremony of initiation, with its essential elements of consecration, distribution, and reception.” (3) The contention that immersion was the mode used by the primitive Church has more recently been questioned, in the light of a comparison between the writings of the Church Fathers and the archaeological evidence that in any way relates to mode. Such a comparison appears to favor pouring the prevailing mode, with other modes also in use. Excellent studies of this question can be found in Clement F. Rogers’ work, Baptism and Christian Archaeology (Oxford: The Clarendon Press, 1903), and J.G. Davies’ work, The Architectural Setting of Baptism (London, Barrie and Rockliff, 1962).

I only post that in order to help understand Calvin's comments better. OTOH, Beveridge could also be wrong. :D
 
How does the position that immersion was used by the NT church (and I cannot find where Calvin ever asserted otherwise), but then insisting that other modes are just as good, comport with the RPW?

Oh. Good question.

---------- Post added at 09:51 AM ---------- Previous post was at 09:49 AM ----------

There is another possibility to note: maybe Calvin was wrong (gasp!).

Be careful. Remember what happened to Servetus?
 
My nephew was baptized by immersion in the Roman Catholic Church in Arkansas. The church recently had an immersion pool built and the priest said that is was the practice of the early church.

This is most interesting. I wonder if this is becoming more common in RC churches?
 
In terms of the church "granting herself the liberty to change the rite somewhat", I tend to thinks so.

I do, however, think that the Beveridge note is helpful in considering what Calvin thought was important and unimportant in a sacrament. We could apply that similarly to the Lord's Supper as well. Of course, we tend to fight about the same things there as well (grape juice v. wine, leavened v. unleavened bread, single loaf/cup v. individual pieces, etc.) and lose sight of what the Lord has given us. :2cents:
 
How does the position that immersion was used by the NT church (and I cannot find where Calvin ever asserted otherwise), but then insisting that other modes are just as good, comport with the RPW?

Because Scripture asserts that Baptism is to be done by "pouring out".

Luke 3:16
"John answered, saying to all, 'I indeed baptize you with water; but One mightier than I is coming, whose sandal strap I am not worthy to loose. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire.'"

Acts 1:4-5
"And being assembled together with them, He commanded them not to depart from Jerusalem, but to wait for the Promise of the Father, 'which,' He said, 'you have heard from Me; for John truly baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days from now.'"

Acts 2:14-18
"But Peter, standing up with the eleven, raised his voice and said to them, 'Men of Judea and all who dwell in Jerusalem, let this be known to you, and heed my words. For these are not drunk, as you suppose, since it is only the third hour of the day. But this is what was spoken by the prophet Joel: "And it shall come to pass in the last days, says God, that I will pour out of My Spirit on all flesh; your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your young men shall see visions, your old men shall dream dreams. And on My menservants and on My maidservants I will pour out My Spirit in those days; and they shall prophesy."'"

Acts 2:32-33
"This Jesus God has raised up, of which we are all witnesses. Therefore being exalted to the right hand of God, and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, He poured out this which you now see and hear."

God promised that He would pour out his Spirit on all flesh, in those days. The promise is fulfilled when Christ baptizes with the Holy Spirit. Baptism is to be done by the pouring out of water, just as Christ poured out the Holy Spirit, as prophesied by Joel, John, and Christ Himself.
 
Seth, I do want to stay on the OP insofar as possible, yet since Dr. Ferguson does raise this issue in his paper, I'll bite. However, right now I have to go to work for a while :duh:, but I'll eventually put something together that explains my thinking on this issue and post it here later.
 
Being a Particular Baptist from the foundation of my Christian Journey, the mode really hasn't been one I have argued for or against necessarily. Especially when considering the LXX and the use of the terms and applications in the texts in it. Of course that is a secondary source and not the God breathed word, but it does give us reference to how the terms were used. I would and do prefer the immersion understanding. But if there is a contention in someones heart I wouldn't worry about it. To me the issue is about the New Creation as St. Paul noted.

(Gal 6:14) But God forbid that I should glory, save in the cross of our Lord Jesus Christ, by whom the world is crucified unto me, and I unto the world.

(Gal 6:15) For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision availeth any thing, nor uncircumcision, but a new creature.

(Gal 6:16) And as many as walk according to this rule, peace be on them, and mercy, and upon the Israel of God.

At the same time I would say that death, burial, and resurrection are pictured better by the immersion method.
 
At the same time I would say that death, burial, and resurrection are pictured better by the immersion method.

Except for the fact that this is an anachronistic understanding of what it means to be "buried." It is taking a modern conception of burial (i.e., a body being placed beneath the surface of the ground) and imposing that on the text of Romans 6. It is true enough that we are buried with Christ through baptism into death, but what did Jesus' burial look like? He was placed in a cave with a stone rolled over it -- hardly an exact metaphor to the way (some) immersionists which to depict it. Furthermore, burial is not the only metaphor for baptism in the writings of Paul: "For all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ" (Galatians 3:27). I'm not sure how one would depict that through immersion.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Well, no one ever accused RCs of being particularly knowledgeable about church history.

Nor consistent for that matter! :2cents:

---------- Post added at 04:29 PM ---------- Previous post was at 04:23 PM ----------

At the same time I would say that death, burial, and resurrection are pictured better by the immersion method.

I think sprinkling better pictures the cleansing and renewing work of the blood of Christ in the new covenant. :D
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top