Why not both?

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Paul is that like showing them there is no basis for their view of morality since they have nothing to point to for it's basis? And then showing them I have a basis of morality based upon a Creator?


Addition to post.....
I asked this before reading your last post and looking at the threads. I have been doing the above for years. Looks like we are in agreement.Humanity the Moral Standard?

[Edited on 9-5-2005 by puritancovenanter]
 
A common confusion is that of mixing evidenCES and evidentialISM

I think this is part of my problem. Only part. I didn't undertand the differences between the uses of evidences and evidentialism. I still don't understand the relationship between the need or needlessness of evidences. There is obviously a need. Or we couldn't come to any logical conclusions.
 
Originally posted by Paul manata
Originally posted by puritancovenanter
A common confusion is that of mixing evidenCES and evidentialISM

I think this is part of my problem. Only part. I didn't undertand the differences between the uses of evidences and evidentialism. I still don't understand the relationship between the need or needlessness of evidences. There is obviously a need. Or we couldn't come to any logical conclusions.

no presupp has ever said there isn't a need, or a use for evidenCES. We reject the *methodology* of evidentialISM.

Translation: don't use Josh McDowel's "Evidence that Demands a Verdict" (or things like it...???)

:book2:

r.
 
Originally posted by puritancovenanter

Are you asking a convert to presuppose something or arrive at a conclusion or belief based upon pressupositions?

In other words are you just asking someone to believe something just because you believe it? Just because it is supposed truth? i.e. Christianity. Or are you asking someone to believe something about Christ and the Scriptures based upon evidence? i.e. blind faith vs. faith based upon evidence.

Neither!

Presuppositionalism is NOT blind faith.

And Presuppositionalism is NOT "based on evidence", per se.

Rather, Presuppositionalism is a manner of analyzing one's presuppositions to see whether or not they jive with already agreed upon facts.


Here is a simplistic illustration:

Some guy says, "I don't believe in logic."
Then you say, "Why not?"
Then he starts giving you reasons why he doesn't believe in logic.

What is the best reponse at this point? Simply point out to him that, if logic doesn't exist, then there can't be any "reasons" for anything. Thus, his "reasons" for the nonexistence of logic are self-defeating. You both agree that reasons should be given. But his very use of "reasoning" is proof that he believes in logic.

Thus, you point out that his worldview does not jive with his actual beliefs. His presuppositions do not account for his actions.


Similarly, and atheist and I already agree that 2 + 2 = 4. But his atheistic presuppositions cannot account for the existence or dependability of mathematics. (This can philosophically be shown to be true regarding non-christian theistic religions, as well.) The Christian's triune God is the ONLY valid presuppositional foundation for mathematics (or anything else, for that matter).

Make sense?

[Edited on 9-6-2005 by biblelighthouse]
 
Originally posted by puritancovenanter
Let me ask a question. Does Presup Position mean we try to give an apologetic based upon the unbellievers presuppositions, or are we giving an apologetic based upon our presupposition, or are we doing both?

My understanding is that we look at both. We look at the unbeliever's presups, and demonstrate that reality would be unintelligible according to them. Then we look at our presups, and demonstrate that reality is perfectly accounted for by them. Thus, we show the other person that he is unwittingly living and acting according to beliefs hijacked from the Christian worldview. The Triune God is the only One who can make the world make sense.
 
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