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I would like to get your impressions. If a woman open-air preaches the gospel to a group of people that include men, is she violating I Timothy 2, in regards to women not having authority over men?
And in regard to me leaving out the word teach...no, there was no reason, no, sly, underhanded reason for leaving the word "teach" out - but thanks for answering my question.
So it's a sin for a woman to tell an unsaved man to repent and believe the gospel?
To pronounce a public discourse on a religious subject, or from a subject, or from a text of Scripture. The word is usually applied to such discourses as are formed from a text of Scripture. This is the modern sense of preach.
By whom is the Word of God to be preached?
Answer: The Word of God is to be preached only by such as are sufficiently gifted, and also duly approved and called to that office.
Scripture references: 1 Timothy 3:2, 6; Ephesians 4:8-11; Hosea 4:6; Malachi 2:7; 2 Corinthians 3:6; Jeremiah 14:15; Romans 10:15; Hebrews 5:4; 1 Corinthians 12:28-29; 1 Timothy 3:10; 1 Timothy 4:14; 1 Timothy 5:22.
So it's a sin for a woman to tell an unsaved man to repent and believe the gospel?
Edit: And what about Christian women missionaries?
It is amazing to me, how on this site, very few people can respond with an answer...everyone seems to like to respond to a question with a didactic question.
Can she preach? No. Why? Preaching includes teaching (the two cannot be separated).Ed, is she in violation? Yes. Why? Preaching is a function of duly ordained and trained men. Preaching includes teaching the word of God. The two cannot be separated.
So it's a sin for a woman to tell an unsaved man to repent and believe the gospel?
Edit: And what about Christian women missionaries?
Let's start a post and define these words:
Sharing, telling, testifying, witnessing, praying, preaching, teaching, announcing, proclaiming, etc
Let's start a post and define these words:
Sharing, telling, testifying, witnessing, praying, preaching, teaching, announcing, proclaiming, etc
If by this sideways method you're implying that we should throw up our hands and declare that there's no distinction to be made, and that Christian women missionaries delivering the Word of God as a teacher/preacher/pastor to an 'unreached people group' is legitimate, then I guess there's no convincing you.
I'm sure you've seen "effective work" by Christian women missionaries working near you, Perg. That effectiveness doesn't change the fact that many or most of them might be working in actuality as though a pastor, contrary to the revealed word of God. Are they serving as the authoritative contact, the teacher, for these people, to teach them the Word of God and preach it to them? I think it wise to think carefully about what is being done, and whether it in fact runs afoul of the Word.
I may be wrong in my assessment of what you're saying, though, and if so I apologize. Why not offer the first set of definitions, then?
I realize that some here on the PB think that 1 Tim 2 is a declaration about how all of life should be ordered, but I think it is clearly contextually limited to how things in the church should be run.
I realize that some here on the PB think that 1 Tim 2 is a declaration about how all of life should be ordered, but I think it is clearly contextually limited to how things in the church should be run.
I realize that some here on the PB think that 1 Tim 2 is a declaration about how all of life should be ordered, but I think it is clearly contextually limited to how things in the church should be run.
Except that 1 Tim 2 proves the church order by pointing to the created order. It basically says that since women are under the authority of men in creation they are also to be under that authority in the Church.
1 Tim 2 uses creation for the explanation of why the church order is as it is. There is no reason to assume, without further bible references, that the verse should be applied to other spheres of life.
Except that, as you say, it uses creation for the explanation. It is for this reason, because the order is found in creation, that it can be applied to the broader spectrum of all spheres of life.
He is not using Adam and Eve as simply the first created people, but brings the creation account up to show the created order of the genders. It is because God created a particular order between the genders at creation that we are to keep such orders in our churches.Because Adam was over Eve in creation does not imply every man is over every woman in all spheres of life. We are reliant on the revelation of the bible to tell us how we should apply the truth of creation.
In any case, we know the verse is not of all-encompassing application because the bible gives us examples of women teaching or in authority in other spheres, be it mothers over their male children, wives over their servants, female heads of households, or women teaching men in informal situations like Priscilla teaching Apollos or Abigail teaching David.
He is not using Adam and Eve as simply the first created people, but brings the creation account up to show the created order of the genders. It is because God created a particular order between the genders at creation that we are to keep such orders in our churches.
I presume the Apollos passage you refer to is...
And he began to speak boldly in the synagogue: whom when Aquila and Priscilla had heard, they took him unto them, and expounded unto him the way of God more perfectly. (Act 18:26)
And if it is, i see no reason why you think it points to Priscilla having any kind of authority over Apollos. The word "expounded" can also be rendered "declared"...and there is nothing wrong with a woman declaring the Gospel to others.
It does not give us examples of women having this kind of authority over men.
Mothers over children certainly has nothing to do with them being over men.
As far as the other examples that you give it's not easy to give an answer to without the passages that you are referring to.
Here are the verses I had in mind:
Wives over servants: 1 Sam 25:18-19, 2 Kings 4:24