LadyFlynt
Puritan Board Doctor
by Augusta
Ok here is the low down on prophesy as it is used in this passage from what I have gleaned in my study of this issue. There is more than one way that this word is used. It is used in several OT scriptures to mean praise and worship or speaking the Word of the Lord. When we quote scripture we are prophesying. When we sing an inspired psalm we are prophesying. Here are a few example OT verses: 1 Chron 25:1-3, 1 Samuel 19:20-24, and Ezekiel 37 the whole speak the Word of the Lord to the bones which is a foreshadowing of how the Gospel spoken to hearing ears will raise us from the dead or quicken us to life and is the "power of God unto salvation" Rom. 1:16.
So when it is speaking about corporate worship in 1 Cor. 11 which almost nobody disgrees that that it what is being discussed, we can reasonably assume that when they use the word prophesy here that it is talking about worship and psalm singing and scripture quoting etc. Not necessarily new revelatory prophecy. Especially now since most of us as reformed christians believe that has now ceased. It has to be discussing either singing, preaching the gospel, or praying etc. Especially since we find out later in Corinthians that women are not to speak in the assemblies. Would Paul inspired by the Holy Spirit contradict himself?
We also know that there were most likely inspired psalms of David sung and possibly some new inspired songs in the age of the apostles possibly being sung. So it is no stretch at all if they are singing spiritually inspired songs of David that you could say they were all prophesying.
Okay, let's discuss what it means...women speaking or not speaking in the church...
1 Corinthians 14:34 Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law.
1 Corinthians 14:35 And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church.
It appears to me the the silence is in reference to 1 Timothy 2:12 "But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence." In the synagogues a man would read the Torah, then the other men would ask him questions to a) discern if the man understood what he read b) to gain better understanding themselves from the other men. I would make sense that women should not only NOT teach a man, but also should NOT take part in this question and answer period "within the assembly", but should ask her male head when they got home. There are churches that actually even during Sunday School will only permit the men to ask and answer questions (not saying I agree with this in a normative Bible study however).
The reason I bring this topic up is that we know that Paul, being inspired of the Holy Spirit, would not contradict himself from 1 Corinthians 11.
the floor is open....