Jerusalem Blade
Puritan Board Professor
I have difficulty getting clarity on the 14th chapter and first four verses of Zechariah’s prophecy. I have studied a number of Reformed commentaries, as well as others with different viewpoints, and still find myself ignorant! So I am asking the King for wisdom, as well throwing this out to see if any of my fellows here at PB can shed light on it.
Is this not a picture of the Lord's second advent, answering to the angel's saying in Acts 1:11, 12: "Ye men of Galilee, why stand ye here gazing up into heaven? This same Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so come in like manner as ye have seen him go into heaven. Then returned they unto Jerusalem from the mount called Olivet, which is from Jerusalem a sabbath day's journey."
I am not of a mind to sanction “spiritualizing” Zechariah 14:1-4. I am amil, yet think the amil position errs when it spiritualizes these verses.
To illustrate some of the difficulty, verses 1 through 4 in Zechariah 14 portray utter catastrophe for Jerusalem, and a seismic upheaval; this a picture of judgment and destruction, preceding divine deliverance, with only a small remnant delivered. By no means can it be said this has already been accomplished; Wright says in his commentary this signifies the sufferings and defeats of the Jews from the destruction of the temple in A.D. 70 to the present (he wrote in the 1800s); others say it is the surrounding of the church by the ungodly, per Revelation 20:8,9 (although I do not equate the two passages); and yet others (David Barton, for one) say it will happen as literally written and is the precursor to the Lord’s (supposed) millennial reign in Jerusalem, per the premil view.
In 70 and 135 it was not "nations", but Rome.
If one is to take it in a literal sense, then the Jews returning to Palestine are returning to judgment, as to a threshing floor, with but a fraction saved. This is not inconsistent with a basic amil view, for this view does not necessarily preclude such things (neither does it preclude an actual person as antichrist, nor actual people as the two witnesses of Rev. 11).
Yet the Reformed writings I have seen construe this Zechariah passage as not pertaining to the actual Jerusalem here below, but to the church. Any thoughts?
Steve
Is this not a picture of the Lord's second advent, answering to the angel's saying in Acts 1:11, 12: "Ye men of Galilee, why stand ye here gazing up into heaven? This same Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so come in like manner as ye have seen him go into heaven. Then returned they unto Jerusalem from the mount called Olivet, which is from Jerusalem a sabbath day's journey."
I am not of a mind to sanction “spiritualizing” Zechariah 14:1-4. I am amil, yet think the amil position errs when it spiritualizes these verses.
Behold, the day of the LORD cometh, and thy spoil shall be divided in the midst of thee.
For I will gather all nations against Jerusalem to battle; and the city shall be taken, and the houses rifled, and the women ravished; and half of the city shall go forth into captivity, and the residue of the people shall not be cut off from the city.
Then shall the LORD go forth, and fight against those nations, as when he fought in the day of battle.
And his feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of Olives, which is before Jerusalem on the east, and the mount of Olives shall cleave in the midst thereof toward the east and toward the west, and there shall be a very great valley; and half of the mountain shall remove toward the north, and half of it toward the south.
For I will gather all nations against Jerusalem to battle; and the city shall be taken, and the houses rifled, and the women ravished; and half of the city shall go forth into captivity, and the residue of the people shall not be cut off from the city.
Then shall the LORD go forth, and fight against those nations, as when he fought in the day of battle.
And his feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of Olives, which is before Jerusalem on the east, and the mount of Olives shall cleave in the midst thereof toward the east and toward the west, and there shall be a very great valley; and half of the mountain shall remove toward the north, and half of it toward the south.
To illustrate some of the difficulty, verses 1 through 4 in Zechariah 14 portray utter catastrophe for Jerusalem, and a seismic upheaval; this a picture of judgment and destruction, preceding divine deliverance, with only a small remnant delivered. By no means can it be said this has already been accomplished; Wright says in his commentary this signifies the sufferings and defeats of the Jews from the destruction of the temple in A.D. 70 to the present (he wrote in the 1800s); others say it is the surrounding of the church by the ungodly, per Revelation 20:8,9 (although I do not equate the two passages); and yet others (David Barton, for one) say it will happen as literally written and is the precursor to the Lord’s (supposed) millennial reign in Jerusalem, per the premil view.
In 70 and 135 it was not "nations", but Rome.
If one is to take it in a literal sense, then the Jews returning to Palestine are returning to judgment, as to a threshing floor, with but a fraction saved. This is not inconsistent with a basic amil view, for this view does not necessarily preclude such things (neither does it preclude an actual person as antichrist, nor actual people as the two witnesses of Rev. 11).
Yet the Reformed writings I have seen construe this Zechariah passage as not pertaining to the actual Jerusalem here below, but to the church. Any thoughts?
Steve
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