I am looking for insight into the Reformed consensus on the relationship between the promise of the covenant of grace (e.g., Genesis 17:7) and the promise of the gospel (e.g., Romans 10:9). The juxtaposition of the promises in Acts 2:38-39 in response to the question from Peter's audience makes me lean towards the second option below, but I am also familiar with some authors who seem to equate the promises with each other.
Is there a clean distinction between the two promises?
Are the two promises somewhat distinct but intimately related?
Are the two promises identical?
Is there a lack of consensus on the absolute definitions of the two promises?
Is there a clean distinction between the two promises?
Are the two promises somewhat distinct but intimately related?
Are the two promises identical?
Is there a lack of consensus on the absolute definitions of the two promises?