arapahoepark
Puritan Board Professor
I am curious as to Paul's line of thought in these two verses that Christ became a curse so that the blessing of Abraham may come to the Gentiles.
Something I have been encountering recently is the idea that Christ died as a representative or substitute for Israel (maybe implying not for Gentiles) since the Law was given only to them. Thus with the law and curse removed all can share in the blessing of Israel. Seems interesting but, I am not sure.
What are your guys' thoughts?
Something I have been encountering recently is the idea that Christ died as a representative or substitute for Israel (maybe implying not for Gentiles) since the Law was given only to them. Thus with the law and curse removed all can share in the blessing of Israel. Seems interesting but, I am not sure.
What are your guys' thoughts?