I was recently having a conversation on Household Baptisms with some Reformed Baptist friends. They told me that most of the Household Baptisms were either done in a Gentile context and/or recorded by Gentiles. Therefore (they argued) you cannot convincingly link NT Household Baptisms to the OT Hebraic context.
I have not heard that argument before so I was a little caught off guard. I would be interested in any responses to it.
I have not heard that argument before so I was a little caught off guard. I would be interested in any responses to it.