larryjf
Puritan Board Senior
The Westminster confession states that the scriptures in their original languages are to be translated into the vulgar (common) language of individual nations (Chapter 1, paragraph 8).
The Westminster directory of public worship states that the bible shall be read in the vulgar (common) tongue, out of the best allowed translation, distinctly, that all may hear and understand.
Would a church that uses the KJV actually be disregarding the confession of faith on this point?
The Westminster directory of public worship states that the bible shall be read in the vulgar (common) tongue, out of the best allowed translation, distinctly, that all may hear and understand.
Would a church that uses the KJV actually be disregarding the confession of faith on this point?