NicolasD1689
Puritan Board Freshman
Since most TR and KJV only Christians believe that God has kept his Word pure in all generations, even to the smallest letter or syllable rendering of a word, how do we examine the fact that we do not have the original spelling of God's covenant name in the OT? Wouldn't this throw the teaching of preserving every letter and stroke in the TR pure tradition?
Thank you for your help! I have been watching a few debates over these issues, and that question crossed my mind.
Thank you for your help! I have been watching a few debates over these issues, and that question crossed my mind.