I don't mean to debate anyone on this. I only wish to post the question and see what folks have to say. Hopefully there are some direct answers.
My question is this: How much further must today's language evolve before the KJV translation is deemed beyond the concept of "vulgar language" as described in WCF 1:8?
My question is this: How much further must today's language evolve before the KJV translation is deemed beyond the concept of "vulgar language" as described in WCF 1:8?