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I see it. But I can't vote because I'm not sure.![]()
Louis Berkhof in his Systematic Theology gives a good pro/con discussion on this issue.
Does not the supralapsarian theory posit that God created a portion of humanity for damnation?
Does not the supralapsarian theory posit that God created a portion of humanity for damnation?
I was just curious to find out what the majority of people lean towards today. I know we did a similar poll a while ago, but it wasn't dealing specifically with lapsarianism. Do you lean more towards supra, infra, or reject both?
Does not the supralapsarian theory posit that God created a portion of humanity for damnation?
My husband and I are Supralapsarians, which means we believe God decreed to elect a portion of sinful humanity to be saved in Christ, before He created the world.
According to the WCF, God "predestined" the elect to everlasting life and "foreordained" the guilty to everlasting death.
The divines supposedly were mostly infralapsarians, but there has never been reason given (that I know of) that says supralapsarians cannot agree and hold to this very careful and wise use of language.
Romans 9:21 Does not the potter have power over the clay, from the same lump to make one vessel for honor and another for dishonor?
Matthew Henry comments:
(1.) He gives us the comparison, v. 21. The potter, out of the same lump, may make either a fashionable vessel…, or a contemptible vessel, ….
(2.) The application of the comparison, v. 22-24. Two sorts of vessels God forms out of the great lump of fallen mankind:-- [1.] Vessels of wrath--…. [2.] Vessels of mercy-
Ronda, the infralapsarian also strongly affirms what you have stated -- that God decreed to elect a portion of sinful humanity to be saved in Christ, before he created the world. It is not a question of temporal order. In fact, your language of electing a portion of sinful humanity, while it could be said by a supralapsarian, is at least clothed in infralapsarian language.
Ronda, the infralapsarian also strongly affirms what you have stated -- that God decreed to elect a portion of sinful humanity to be saved in Christ, before he created the world. It is not a question of temporal order. In fact, your language of electing a portion of sinful humanity, while it could be said by a supralapsarian, is at least clothed in infralapsarian language.
Only in that we view God discriminating among men viewed as sinners, (which is indeed part of the Infra view), before the decree that man should fall.
Contrasting with the infralapsarians placing the decree of Godly election after the decree of the fall of man.
Dr. Robert Reymond acknowledges the validity of our Supra view, in his "Systematic Theology Of The Christian Faith" by accurately listing our understanding of the Godly decrees, in this order:
"1. The election of some sinful men to salvation in Christ (and the reprobation of the rest of sinful mankind, in order to make known the riches of God's gracious mercy to the elect).
2. The decree to apply Christ's redemptive benefits to the elect sinners.
3. The decree to redeem the elect sinners by the cross work of Christ.
4. The decree that men should fall.
5. The decree to create the world and men."
(Please review pages 488-492)
This is the same order held (possibly) by Jerome Zanchius, Johannes Piscator, Herman Hoeksema and Gordon Clark, with which we concur.
Ronda, the infralapsarian also strongly affirms what you have stated -- that God decreed to elect a portion of sinful humanity to be saved in Christ, before he created the world. It is not a question of temporal order. In fact, your language of electing a portion of sinful humanity, while it could be said by a supralapsarian, is at least clothed in infralapsarian language.
Only in that we view God discriminating among men viewed as sinners, (which is indeed part of the Infra view), before the decree that man should fall.
Contrasting with the infralapsarians placing the decree of Godly election after the decree of the fall of man.
Dr. Robert Reymond acknowledges the validity of our Supra view, in his "Systematic Theology Of The Christian Faith" by accurately listing our understanding of the Godly decrees, in this order:
"1. The election of some sinful men to salvation in Christ (and the reprobation of the rest of sinful mankind, in order to make known the riches of God's gracious mercy to the elect).
2. The decree to apply Christ's redemptive benefits to the elect sinners.
3. The decree to redeem the elect sinners by the cross work of Christ.
4. The decree that men should fall.
5. The decree to create the world and men."
(Please review pages 488-492)
This is the same order held (possibly) by Jerome Zanchius, Johannes Piscator, Herman Hoeksema and Gordon Clark, with which we concur.
Lapsarian differences aside, the five point order of decrees above is a Non sequitur as it is inconsistent with logical order. The order has #1 (sinful men) in God's will prior to there being men at all. So too with # 2 and 3.
Louis Berkhof in his Systematic Theology gives a good pro/con discussion on this issue.
Thanks for posting that, I've read His "Summary of Christian Doctrine" but I am curious to read what he has to say on this topic.
I also believe the Confession as stated above allows for both views, since the Divines held both views. But I think it leans towards infra. because you can see it in the language of preterition, where God 'passes by' those whom He did not elect letting them fall into their own sin. Showing that the decree of election logically followed the decree of the fall.![]()
I also believe the Confession as stated above allows for both views, since the Divines held both views. But I think it leans towards infra. because you can see it in the language of preterition, where God 'passes by' those whom He did not elect letting them fall into their own sin. Showing that the decree of election logically followed the decree of the fall.![]()
Thanks for your input here. I do have a question for you or anyone who may happen to know. When people say that the majority of the Westminster Divines were infra....is that based on the language of the WCF or historical knowledge of the Westminster men?? I haven't been able to find a conclusive answer to this question yet.
Thanks for your input here. I do have a question for you or anyone who may happen to know. When people say that the majority of the Westminster Divines were infra....is that based on the language of the WCF or historical knowledge of the Westminster men?? I haven't been able to find a conclusive answer to this question yet.