hypostatic union

How is it said that God purchased the Church with his blood (Acts 20:28), when God does not have blood? The answer is that it was Christ who bled, who is both God and man. The attribution of the properties of one of Christ’s natures to the other (such as in Acts 20:28) is called the doctrine...

It is sometimes argued that the Incarnation of Christ contradicts the unchangeability of God, for if a divine Person became a man in time, then some change must have occured in the divine Person. Traditional Christianity, however, has held that God, by definition, is able to act on others...

I get that when we pray to Jesus, we're praying to Jesus as a person, but at the same time I realize that when Jesus was on Earth, He probably didn't know if people were praying to Him, and since he's forever human, I don't see why this would change now that He's been glorified. Like for...

So, I was just thinking about Luke 2:52, "And Jesus increased in wisdom and in stature and in favor with God and man", which of course means he did so in his human nature with his human mind, not with his divine nature. But I was also thinking about some liberal theologians that I had seen argue...

Could I get some help understanding this? Is not my person equivalent to my soul? So whenever a human soul is created, a new person is created, correct? But, if so, and Jesus had a human soul, how do we logically avoid Nestorianism in saying that the creation of Jesus' human soul didn't result...