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Bigamy is always a sin because it involves lying to one spouse saying you're not married when you are. Polygamy isn't always a sin, and has been dealt with here many times.
Bigamy is always a sin because it involves lying to one spouse saying you're not married when you are. Polygamy isn't always a sin, and has been dealt with here many times.
Who honestly wants more than one nagging voice anyway? (totally kidding)
He may mean that it's not perpetually a sin. For example, an unbeliever in a tribal culture has multiple wives. He's converted, but it wouldn't be right to then divorce said wives. But he may not mean that, so I dunno.Bigamy is always a sin because it involves lying to one spouse saying you're not married when you are. Polygamy isn't always a sin, and has been dealt with here many times.
Explain, Tim?
"Bigamy is a sin, bot Polygamy is not necessarily."
What's your principle? Can you show me some Scripture?
He may mean that it's not perpetually a sin. For example, an unbeliever in a tribal culture has multiple wives. He's converted, but it wouldn't be right to then divorce said wives. But he may not mean that, so I dunno.Explain, Tim?
"Bigamy is a sin, bot Polygamy is not necessarily."
What's your principle? Can you show me some Scripture?
But why the distinction he makes between bigamy and polygamy.
Bigamy is always a sin because it involves lying to one spouse saying you're not married
He may mean that it's not perpetually a sin. For example, an unbeliever in a tribal culture has multiple wives. He's converted, but it wouldn't be right to then divorce said wives. But he may not mean that, so I dunno.Bigamy is always a sin because it involves lying to one spouse saying you're not married when you are. Polygamy isn't always a sin, and has been dealt with here many times.
Explain, Tim?
"Bigamy is a sin, bot Polygamy is not necessarily."
What's your principle? Can you show me some Scripture?
He may mean that it's not perpetually a sin. For example, an unbeliever in a tribal culture has multiple wives. He's converted, but it wouldn't be right to then divorce said wives. But he may not mean that, so I dunno.
But why the distinction he makes between bigamy and polygamy.
Tim explains this when he states that:
Bigamy is always a sin because it involves lying to one spouse saying you're not married
He may mean that it's not perpetually a sin. For example, an unbeliever in a tribal culture has multiple wives. He's converted, but it wouldn't be right to then divorce said wives. But he may not mean that, so I dunno.Explain, Tim?
"Bigamy is a sin, bot Polygamy is not necessarily."
What's your principle? Can you show me some Scripture?
And actually that's EXACTLY what I think is going on in 1 Timothy. Everyone the early church was dealing with was new converts - so there would naturally be converted polygamists among them. Those who would be elders, though, had to be monogamists, for the simple reason that polygamy in any form is a sin. The statement about being one-woman men in 1 Timothy is NOT an approbation of the practice of polygamy, but exactly the opposite (because an elder must be above reproach, and a polygamist elder could not be so).
-----Added 1/2/2009 at 05:08:41 EST-----
Tim explains this when he states that:
Bigamy is always a sin because it involves lying to one spouse saying you're not married
And how does that differ when you are lying to more people?
He may mean that it's not perpetually a sin. For example, an unbeliever in a tribal culture has multiple wives. He's converted, but it wouldn't be right to then divorce said wives. But he may not mean that, so I dunno.Explain, Tim?
"Bigamy is a sin, bot Polygamy is not necessarily."
What's your principle? Can you show me some Scripture?
And actually that's EXACTLY what I think is going on in 1 Timothy. Everyone the early church was dealing with was new converts - so there would naturally be converted polygamists among them. Those who would be elders, though, had to be monogamists, for the simple reason that polygamy in any form is a sin. The statement about being one-woman men in 1 Timothy is NOT an approbation of the practice of polygamy, but exactly the opposite (because an elder must be above reproach, and a polygamist elder could not be so).
-----Added 1/2/2009 at 05:08:41 EST-----
Tim explains this when he states that:
Bigamy is always a sin because it involves lying to one spouse saying you're not married
And how does that differ when you are lying to more people?
Perpetually, even if all the wives were "accrued" before his salvation? (a sincere question, not a loaded one, cuz I'm just not sure)Those who would be elders, though, had to be monogamists, for the simple reason that polygamy in any form is a sin.
If so, should he divorce all but one? Which ones?
He may mean that it's not perpetually a sin. For example, an unbeliever in a tribal culture has multiple wives. He's converted, but it wouldn't be right to then divorce said wives. But he may not mean that, so I dunno.
And actually that's EXACTLY what I think is going on in 1 Timothy. Everyone the early church was dealing with was new converts - so there would naturally be converted polygamists among them. Those who would be elders, though, had to be monogamists, for the simple reason that polygamy in any form is a sin. The statement about being one-woman men in 1 Timothy is NOT an approbation of the practice of polygamy, but exactly the opposite (because an elder must be above reproach, and a polygamist elder could not be so).
-----Added 1/2/2009 at 05:08:41 EST-----
And how does that differ when you are lying to more people?
What about the Old testament practice of Polygomy?
-----Added 1/2/2009 at 05:10:31 EST-----
And actually that's EXACTLY what I think is going on in 1 Timothy. Everyone the early church was dealing with was new converts - so there would naturally be converted polygamists among them. Those who would be elders, though, had to be monogamists, for the simple reason that polygamy in any form is a sin. The statement about being one-woman men in 1 Timothy is NOT an approbation of the practice of polygamy, but exactly the opposite (because an elder must be above reproach, and a polygamist elder could not be so).
-----Added 1/2/2009 at 05:08:41 EST-----
Tim explains this when he states that:
And how does that differ when you are lying to more people?
Because if Polygomy is legal you do not have to lie to anyone.
And how does that differ when you are lying to more people?
Because if Polygomy is legal you do not have to lie to anyone.
The same is true of bigamy.
I still don't get it.
Marriage is to be between one man and one woman: neither is it lawful for any man to have more than one wife, nor for any woman to have more than one husband at the same time.
Agreed. So it's not perpetually sinful, per se, but a perpetual disqualifier? I agree with that (not that I have any clout or anything).Perpetually, even if all the wives were "accrued" before his salvation? (a sincere question, not a loaded one, cuz I'm just not sure)
If so, should he divorce all but one? Which ones?
No, he should be content not to be an elder.
Todd the nuance between the two words is that Bigamy usually involves trickery. So when certain Mormon sects are spoken about the word polygamy is used rather than bigamy because in the Mormon family the co-wives are aware of each other. People usually punished by the courts in the US and western Europe for bigamy have wives that don't know about each other.
In PNG often people were converted with more than one wife, and since no where in the Bible is having more than one wife is called sin, and forcing the man to divorce all his wife except the first (like until recently Lutherans forced tribal converts to do) would have been in our Missions group (Reformed Baptist, mostly) clearly a sin, we just said that such men could be members in good standing, but were ineligible to become officers. Also (and I'm of mixed opinions on this) if they took another wife after joining a church they would be disciplined.
In the case of bigamy, the contract with the second wife wouldn't have been valid because of the trickery involved, so the marriage wouldn't have happened anyway, like in the case of someone who mistakenly married his half sister. It wasn't a marriage in the first place, so a woman would under no circumstances be disciplined by a Reformed church by not remain in the marriage. What the man did technically was rape the woman, or at least I would so argue.
I don't think you understand the definition of the words. A bigamist can have more than two wives, as can a polygamist.Every polygamist begins as a bigamist, unless he marries multiple women at once, and surely trickery isn't the only problem...
By making things so black and white you get into all sorts of problems, like accusing God of sinI disagree with you that nowhere is it called sin - it is called sin by the impossibility of being a polygamist and obeying the created institution of marriage.
If it is NOT deemed sinful in the Scriptures then it should be allowed.
2Sa 12:8 And I gave you your master's house and your master's wives into your arms and gave you the house of Israel and of Judah. And if this were too little, I would add to you as much more.
Well, that is a good question. I can sympathize with those who argue that any Christian convert is required to put away all but the first wife, just like any Christian convert should be required to put away sin of all kinds.
Jesus Christ doesn't more than one wife, neither should I.
Does the Bible say anything about Big Amy? Maybe I misunderstood rrfranks' original post.
Big Amy was one of the Nephilim I think.
Not sure where the confusion comes in.Bigamy is the unlawful act of having two or more wives or husbands at the same time, usually with the second not knowing about the first. Polygamy is the practice of having multiple wives based on religious beliefs, with all wives aware of, and agreeable to, the husband having several wives. The wives of polygamists refer to each other as "sister wives".
Totally hope your wife makes you sleep on the couch (or in the doghouse) tonight.Who honestly wants more than one nagging voice anyway? (totally kidding)
If God said He gave David wives, you would be calling God the author of sin if under all situations polygamy was a sin.So, what is to be done with the convert who has more than one wife? Do we require him to put away all put one wife? The question has already been asked in this thread but not adequately answered.
Well, if I were a member of the session involved, I wouldn't "vote" for that. Insofar as I can understand it to this point, two wrongs don't make a right. As for now, I suppose, the man must be to his wives and their children, what any Christian man should be to his wife and children.So, what is to be done with the convert who has more than one wife? Do we require him to put away all put one wife? The question has already been asked in this thread but not adequately answered.
Waiting...
If God said He gave David wives, you would be calling God the author of sin if under all situations polygamy was a sin.So, what is to be done with the convert who has more than one wife? Do we require him to put away all put one wife? The question has already been asked in this thread but not adequately answered.
So the answer is that to force someone to divorce a wife who would be forced into starving or demeaning herself just to make someone in the West happy would be wrong. Of course we don't require to force someone to do something God specifically says He hates for no other reason than to make a complex situation simple.
Really, folks, think about the origin of the 12 tribes of Israel for a second!
Well, that is a good question. I can sympathize with those who argue that any Christian convert is required to put away all but the first wife, just like any Christian convert should be required to put away sin of all kinds.
To be honest, I respectfully think that position is a horribly unmerciful and unbiblical one to take, especially in light of the patriarach's polygamy, David not putting away Bathsheba etc etc.
If God said He gave David wives, you would be calling God the author of sin if under all situations polygamy was a sin.So, what is to be done with the convert who has more than one wife? Do we require him to put away all put one wife? The question has already been asked in this thread but not adequately answered.
So the answer is that to force someone to divorce a wife who would be forced into starving or demeaning herself just to make someone in the West happy would be wrong. Of course we don't require to force someone to do something God specifically says He hates for no other reason than to make a complex situation simple.
Really, folks, think about the origin of the 12 tribes of Israel for a second!
I typed in legal difference between bigamy and polygamy at Google and got 4000 hits, which mostly went like this
Not sure where the confusion comes in.Bigamy is the unlawful act of having two or more wives or husbands at the same time, usually with the second not knowing about the first. Polygamy is the practice of having multiple wives based on religious beliefs, with all wives aware of, and agreeable to, the husband having several wives. The wives of polygamists refer to each other as "sister wives".
Perg, is your experience dealing with the severity of co-wife fights the same as mine was in the Highlands? That they're about the worst sort of fights?
So, what is to be done with the convert who has more than one wife? Do we require him to put away all put one wife? The question has already been asked in this thread but not adequately answered.
Waiting...