Did Mary sing? in Luke 1: 46-56

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RTaron

The Grandpa (Affectionately Called)
This may be a kind of seasonal topic for some of you in your churches.
It is sometimes suggested that Mary sang this song. I like to be accurate in understanding the historical accounts of the various stories in the gospel so that I hold them in my mind correctly.

1. Did Mary sing? it seems presumptuous to say that she did.

2. Is this a song?

how do we know?

Thanks in advance.
 
I'd say it certainly seems to be a song---I'm not sure what the issue is if we say that she did, in fact, sing it.

Would this affect the EP debate? Probably not, as it was outside the context of corporate worship of the Church.
 
The so-called "hymns" theory of the Scriptures (Simeon, Mary, etc.) seem to be mostly put forward by theologians who forget that at times the grace of God causes us to burst forth in poetic expressions of praise! I say Mary will filled with the Word of God and it poured from her lips... that does not make it a song though.

I also do not see any evidence that this song as well as the others, were songs, or were sung in the early church- there is just no evidence of it.
 
Now you have me on a mission to find a definite answer to your question. I would point out that there are places in the Scripture where the saints did burst forth in song (Moses and Miriam in Exodus). It is this poetic style that has led many to believe that other places in Scripture where this style appears it is a song.

While I don't know if there is any evidence other than the style of poetry to call Mary's proclaimation a song, it would not surprise me if it is. It is not uncommon for musical people who like to sing to burst forth in spontaneous song to praise to God.
 
The text merely says "Mary said." The "song" is remarkably similar to that of Hannah in 1 Samuel 2, but even that text says that "Hannah prayed and said" (although the setting appears to be at the Tabernacle). There are, of course, other incidents in the OT where songs are sung by the people/congregation of Israel (e.g., Exodus 15), but this is a bit aside of the OP.
 
Thanks Tim. It is not out of the question to look at the other passages where the scripture is explicit that people sang.
Like when Moses sang after the Lord drowned the Egyptians. Ex. 15
I think it is significant that the text says, Mary said. It seems presumptuous to say that she sang.

You may, of course, make it into a song if you like. But, note that it is pretty sketchy to say that it is a new testament song.
 
Thanks Tim. It is not out of the question to look at the other passages where the scripture is explicit that people sang.
Like when Moses sang after the Lord drowned the Egyptians. Ex. 15
I think it is significant that the text says, Mary said. It seems presumptuous to say that she sang.

You may, of course, make it into a song if you like. But, note that it is pretty sketchy to say that it is a new testament song.

Here is an interesting article which (just emailed to me) on Mary's "song" in Luke. byFaith Magazine - Ordinary Life - Mary's Magnificat: Beautiful and Theologically Profound, Our Conversation with Dr. Phil Ryken

He calls it the "last of the Hebrew Psalms" obviously because of its poetic format. On thinking about this, I am reminded that a psalm is a particular style of poetry. If Mary spoke it psalm format, then technically it is a song whether she sang it or not.
 
What makes a psalm a psalm is that it is found in the book of psalms, right?
 
?
"psalmos" was not a word invented or transliterated by the Greek translators of OT Scripture. It is a descriptor, a type of music.
 
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