:wr50:
I think George Milligan (of Moulton & Milligan fame) was correct in his [b:8dd80590af]earlier[/b:8dd80590af] assessment that [i:8dd80590af]diatheke[/i:8dd80590af] should be uniformly translated "covenant" in the NT. The case he makes for the Hebrews 9 passage was quite convincing to me (see his [i:8dd80590af]Theology of the Epistle to the Hebrews[/i:8dd80590af], originally published 1899, and reprinted 1978). The Gal. 3:15 passage Robertson seems willing to concede to "testament" (p. 141, note 11), but in support of "covenant" there too the powerful voice of J.B. Lightfoot chimes in (see his commentary on Gal., pp140f).
Harrie, you, your pastor, and many others may be correct--these are not easy questions. However, "covenant" should, I believe, preponderate in our thinking as unquestionably the dominant theme carried by the biblical-Greek term, to be replaced only after the weight of consideration forces us away from it (if, as I said, at all).