Exodus 15:20 and the RPW

[TryingToLearn]

The passage reads like will-worship to me so I’m trying to figure out how to square it away. Do we just assume Miriam was told to use instruments, or is there some sort of exception here, and if so, what is it?

 

[Deleted member 13126]

Some instruments were used by the Jews but excluded from use in the Temple, such as the timbrel or tabret, which was a tambourine. Some information about restrictions of instruments may be gleaned from 1 Chronicles 15:16, 28; 16:5, 6, 42; 25:1, 6). Only certain persons were to play certain instruments in the Temple. The list of acceptable instruments shrank for ‘local’ or private worship as well.

Worship or Entertainment? By Dr. Peter Masters is quite helpful on this topic.

 

[Jeri Tanner]

Pastor Todd Ruddell helpfully explains the difference between civil celebrations in Israel and public worship (by the way all his readings are so very helpful). https://tinysa.com/sermon/122522162131975

 

[TryingToLearn]

Some instruments were used by the Jews but excluded from use in the Temple, such as the timbrel or tabret, which was a tambourine. Some information about restrictions of instruments may be gleaned from 1 Chronicles 15:16, 28; 16:5, 6, 42; 25:1, 6). Only certain persons were to play certain instruments in the Temple. The list of acceptable instruments shrank for ‘local’ or private worship as well.

Worship or Entertainment? By Dr. Peter Masters is quite helpful on this topic.

I understand. I suppose I didn’t make my question clear enough. This seems to be an instance of Miriam just up and deciding to use instruments in worship apart from any command of God. This isn’t the instituted Temple service, it’s a one-off decision to worship.

Even categorizing this as a civil rather than an ecclesiastical thing, how are the words Miriam speaks not worship? “Sing to Yahweh, for He is highly exalted”. That’s clearly public worship.

 

[TryingToLearn]

I understand. I suppose I didn’t make my question clear enough. This seems to be an instance of Miriam just up and deciding to use instruments in worship apart from any command of God. This isn’t the instituted Temple service, it’s a one-off decision to worship.

Even categorizing this as a civil rather than an ecclesiastical thing, how are the words Miriam speaks not worship? “Sing to Yahweh, for He is highly exalted”. That’s clearly public worship.

Perhaps I’m overthinking this. Does her being a prophet get us out of this? But what’s the evidence that this was specifically connected to her prophetic office?

Edit: maybe 1 Samuel 10:5-6?

 

[Jeri Tanner]

I understand. I suppose I didn’t make my question clear enough. This seems to be an instance of Miriam just up and deciding to use instruments in worship apart from any command of God. This isn’t the instituted Temple service, it’s a one-off decision to worship.

Even categorizing this as a civil rather than an ecclesiastical thing, how are the words Miriam speaks not worship? “Sing to Yahweh, for He is highly exalted”. That’s clearly public worship.

Nations as nations can and should give public praise to God. Our presidents have instituted public civil days and ceremonies for prayer and thanksgiving, for instance. Listening to that reading may help, then considering and reading about the civil/national/ecclesiastical distinctions in OT Israel. There's a good bit here on the PB, I would think. Not that everyone agrees on how this works itself out, I'm sure.

 

[RamistThomist]

If it is just a civil celebration, then it isn't violating RPW. If, on the other hand, it is within an established worship setting, then that can be problematic on some readings of the RPW.

 

[Contra_Mundum]

Even categorizing this as a civil rather than an ecclesiastical thing, how are the words Miriam speaks not worship? “Sing to Yahweh, for He is highly exalted”. That’s clearly public worship.

What does the 2nd Commandment regulate? Every conceivable religious expression? Hardly, even if there are self-evident constraints on what a private Christian or group of believers or a whole church gathering may do by way of legitimate expression. Formal worship is where the 2C has the most complete authority, where the "regulative principle" is thoroughly applied.

Because a private person may write an eloquent prayer--a legitimate artistic and literary work in its own right--does not qualify him to pray it for the sake of a public worship gathering, or qualify it for inclusion in the church's liturgy. The same limitation would not apply in a prayer meeting. All our lawful work is to be done "as to the Lord," thus making it a kind of religious expression or act of worship; but that doesn't mean a metal-worker should set up his forge in the aisle at church to offer it up as a part of the Lord's Day service.

If a church gathers for a picnic in a park on Saturday, and the people commence with a hymn-sing as part of their festivities, the moment has not suddenly become a public worship event. The same is true if a flash-flood threatened to sweep away all those members, but everyone made it safely to high ground; and what followed was a different sort of prayer-and-praise event. This latter is a mostly accurate parallel to the singing celebration found in Ex.15.

Finally, we should say Ex.15:20-21 does not constitute will-worship especially as there is nothing in the inspired text to suggest it; which rather appears to commend the moment as a statement of faith from the women of Israel led by Miriam the prophetess. Was it worshipful? Certainly, but in the way that our lives in general are (at their best) worshipful, and especially our self-consciously dedicated-to-God moments that occur occasionally even outside of formal worship settings.

 

[TryingToLearn]

With respect, I don’t think the last 3 responses sufficiently hold the historic RPW view here that it applies to *all* worship: https://reformedbooksonline.com/the...plies-to-all-worship-not-only-public-worship/ Civil celebrations don’t get some free pass not to be regulated by the will of God. To praise God civilly with instruments violates the RPW as it is still praise to God.

 

[MyCrows]

@TryingToLearn , are you trying to learn, or teach?

 

[TylerRay]

Perhaps I’m overthinking this. Does her being a prophet get us out of this? But what’s the evidence that this was specifically connected to her prophetic office?

Edit: maybe 1 Samuel 10:5-6?

When something in Scripture is done by a prophet, and the context represents it as something acceptable, I think we have sufficient warrant to think it was approved by God. She was inspired by the Holy Ghost to do it.

In the context, she, a prophetess, is singing and playing in response to Moses the prophet. Nothing suggests that the Lord or his messenger disapproved.

Besides the context itself, the warrant to think it was connected to her prophetic function is 1) that she is referred to according to her function ("Miriam the prophetess"), and 2) that prophets often played instruments as a part of their prophetic function.

 

[TylerRay]

All acts of worship are regulated by God's prescription. Whether they are performed as a private, family, civil, or ecclesiastical observance, they still fall under God's prescription.

For instance, President Biden may call upon us to fast and pray for God to grant repentance to our land, but he can't call upon us to offer incense and sacrifice animals to God. God doesn't accept that kind worship because he has not prescribed it.