Expiation/Propitiation: When Does it Occur?

[Knight]

I am trying to get some perspective on this question, and if anyone knows of a Reformed author who addresses it, that would be helpful.

In my understanding, because we are enemies of God and under condemnation until we come to faith, expiation/propitiation are theological concepts which would seem to make more sense in the context of the application of redemption, meaning that they occur the point at which we are united to Christ by faith. At the same time, I want to make sure I am not missing something here. When Christ sat down at the right hand of the Father, the ground of our justification was secured, it just was not yet applied to us. If we say Christ expiated and propitiated our sins by the time He sat down at the Father's right hand (which has already happened), how is it that the Father could bear any wrath against us at birth? If that's not possible, that would seem to answer my question: our sins are expiated and the Father's wrath propitiated at the time we are gifted faith.

 

[Charles Johnson]

The words expiation and propitiation refer to Christ's action on the cross.
"And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world."
"To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation."
Compare the language surrounding the sacrifices of the Old Testament, which are called propitiations.
As far as how God could be angry with the elect before they are justified, the propitiation is strictly for those that believe in Christ. If you haven't believed yet, you haven't been forgiven yet. As Paul says, you have been buried with Christ in baptism. Until we share in Christ's propitation by faith, it doesn't do anything for us.

 

[Knight]

The words expiation and propitiation refer to Christ's action on the cross.
"And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world."
"To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation."
Compare the language surrounding the sacrifices of the Old Testament, which are called propitiations.
As far as how God could be angry with the elect before they are justified, the propitiation is strictly for those that believe in Christ. If you haven't believed yet, you haven't been forgiven yet. As Paul says, you have been buried with Christ in baptism. Until we share in Christ's propitation by faith, it doesn't do anything for us.

"Not imputing their trespasses unto them" - since those who don't have faith do have their trespasses imputed to them, their sins have not been expiated, right? At the time of the completion of Christ's sacrifice, only the sins of believers who had already lived and looked forward to Christ in faith had their sins expiated at that same time.

 

[Charles Johnson]

"Not imputing their trespasses unto them" - since those who don't have faith do have their trespasses imputed to them, their sins have not been expiated, right? At the time of the completion of Christ's sacrifice, only the sins of believers who had already lived and looked forward to Christ in faith had their sins expiated at that same time.

There are two distinct steps. 1) "He reconciled the world to himself." 2) "He has given us the word of reconciliation... Be ye reconciled to God."
They are the objective and subjective sides to the same action. The propitiation was in Christ objectively when he died, and it is in us subjectively when we believe.

 

[Knight]

There are two distinct steps. 1) "He reconciled the world to himself." 2) "He has given us the word of reconciliation... Be ye reconciled to God."
They are the objective and subjective sides to the same action. The propitiation was in Christ objectively when he died, and it is in us subjectively when we believe.

Thank you for engaging. Can you expound on what does it mean to say "The propitiation was in Christ objectively when he died"?

If you're saying that the objective dimension includes, "He reconciled the world to himself," I'm having a hard time understanding that, especially in light of the fact the next phrase ("Not imputing their trespasses unto them") seems to explain what the first one means and also looks like it is talking about what you would call the subjective dimension.

 

[Charles Johnson]

Thank you for engaging. Can you expound on what does it mean to say "The propitiation was in Christ objectively when he died"?

If you're saying that the objective dimension includes, "He reconciled the world to himself," I'm having a hard time understanding that, especially in light of the fact the next phrase ("Not imputing their trespasses unto them") seems to explain what the first one means and also looks like it is talking about what you would call the subjective dimension.

It means that the atonement was in Christ in potency when he made his purchase on the cross, and it was in the elect in act when they believed. To draw a metaphor, when Moses sacrificed the oxen, he first slays the ox and sheds its blood, then he sprinkles the people. The blood is first shed, then it is applied to the people. Redemption is first purchased, then applied.
The offerings of Moses are called a peace offering, which is a parallel to the idea of propitation. When is the peace offering sacrificed? When the animal is killed. When are the people considered sanctified by the blood of the covenant? When it is sprinkled on them.